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Exam Code: ASC-012
Exam Name: Symantec (ASC High Availablity Assessment)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 75 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 A customer has a large high-availability environment comprising of 90 Veritas Cluster Server (VCS)
clusters across 3 sites. Thier business continuity group requires a monthly set of reports showing the
availability and downtime for each service that is clustered. What solution should you recommend?
A. Storage Foundation Manager
B. Veritas Operations Manager
C. Global Cluster Manager
D. VCS webGUI
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following tools should you primarily use to perform pre-installation checks for implementing
VCS or SF/HA 5.1?
A. Common Product Installer (CPI)
B. SORT Installation and Upgrade Assessment
C. VRTS Explorer
D. VCS Configuration Wizard
Answer: B

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NO.3 What are the recommended project phases for VCS or SF/HA Implementation Services, in the right
order?
A. Assess, Design, Transform, Operate (ADTO)
B. Design, Installation, Configuration, Testing, Project Close
C. Planning and Design, Installation and Configuration, Testing, Project handover and close
D. Project Initiation and Planning, Design, Implementation and Testing, Operations Handover, Project
Close
Answer: D

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NO.4 In a 2-node 5.1 Replicated Data Cluster using VVR, which option should be discussed with the
customer?
A. setting the AutoFailover service group attribute to 2
B. using SystemZones for the service groups
C. setting the ClusterFailOverPolicy service group attribute to Manual
D. using Hybrid service groups for the replication service group
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which two should be captured in the Symantec Design Report Questionnaire for a VCS or SF/HA
Implementation Service? (Select two.)
A.Prerequisites for implementing VCS
B.Details of the physical environment, including details of the servers, O/S networks and storage that will
be deployed in the solution
C.List of VCS agents that will be deployed in the solution, including requirements for custom agents
where applicable
D.List of the service groups, resources and dependencies that are to be configured in the solution
E.Details of the applications to be clustered, including service level objectives
Answer: Pending

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Exam Code: 250-511
Exam Name: Symantec (Administration of Symantec(TM) Data Loss Prevention 11)
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Total Q&A: 176 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which two remediation actions are available for Network Protect? (Select two.)
A. Copy
B. Move
C. Block
D. Rename
E. Quarantine
Answer: A,E

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NO.2 Where should the Network Discover detection server be placed in a corporate network architecture?
A. inside the DMZ
B. on the same virtual LAN as the proxy server
C. inside the corporate network
D. on the same switch as the Oracle database server
Answer: C

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NO.3 An administrator is running a Discover Scanner target scan and the scanner is unable to communicate
back to the Discover Server. Where will the files be stored?
A. Discover Server incoming folder
B. scanner's outgoing folder
C. scanner's incoming folder
D. Enforce incident persister
Answer: B

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NO.4 A role is configured for XML export and a user executes the export XML incident action. What must be
done before history information is included in the export?
A. A remediator must take an action on the incident.
B. History must be enabled as a tab or panel in the incident snapshot layout.
C. Incident history must be enabled in the user's role.
D. The manager.properties must be configured for XML export.
Answer: C

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NO.5 To manually troubleshoot DLP Agent issues, the database and log viewer tools must be executed in
which location?
A. in the same location as the dcs.ead file location
B. in the same location as the cg.ead file location
C. in the same location as the ks.ead file location
D. in the same location as the is.ead file location
Answer: C

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NO.6 A user is unable to log in as sysadmin. The Data Loss Prevention system is configured to use Active
Directory authentication. The user is a member of two roles, sysadmin and remediator. How should the
user log in to the user interface in the sysadmin role?
A. sysadmin\username@domain
B. sysadmin\username
C. domain\username
D. sysadmin\username\domain
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which two functions of the communications architecture ensure that the system will automatically
recover if a network connectivity failure occurs between the detection servers and the Enforce Server?
(Select two.)
A. Oracle database backup
B. detection server autonomous monitoring
C. Enforce Server offline alert notification
D. detection server incident queuing
E. detection server alert archiving
Answer: B,D

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NO.8 After installing several new DLP Agents, the Data Loss Prevention administrator discovers that none of
the endpoint agents are appearing on the Agent Overview page. After refreshing the page several times,
and determining that the equipment is powered on and connected to the network, the Agent Overview
page still fails to display the new agents. What is a possible cause for this issue?
A. The DLP Agents need to be added manually through the Symantec Management Platform.
B. The DLP Agents were installed with the incorrect Endpoint server IP address.
C. The assigned Endpoint server needs to be recycled in order to detect the new DLP Agents.
D. The Endpoint Location is set to "Manually" instead of "Automatically" in the Enforce user interface.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which two policy management actions can result in a reduced number of incidents for a given traffic
flow? (Select two.)
A. adding additional component matching to the rule
B. adding data owner exceptions
C. deploying to additional detection servers
D. increasing condition match count
E. adding additional severities
Answer: B,D

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NO.10 Which DLP Agent task is unique to the Symantec Management Platform and is unavailable through
the Enforce console?
A. Change Endpoint server
B. Restart agent
C. Pull agent logs
D. Set log level
Answer: D

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NO.11 The database is full and the Incident Persister is unable to process incidents. Which two file types
could be present in Vontu/protect/incidents? (Select two.)
A. .idx
B. .edc
C. .idc
D. .inc
E. .bad
Answer: C,E

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NO.12 A Data Loss Prevention administrator notices that several errors occurred during a Network Discover
scan. Which report can the administrator use to determine exactly which errors occurred and when?
A. Discover Incident report sorted by target name and scan
B. Full Activity report for that particular scan
C. Server Event report from Server Overview
D. Full Statistics report for that particular scan
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which Network Discover option is used to determine whether confidential data exists without having to
scan the entire target?
A. Byte Throttling
B. File Throttling
C. Match Thresholds
D. Inventory Mode Scanning
Answer: D

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NO.14 What is a feature of keyword proximity matching?
A. It will match on whole keywords only.
B. It has a maximum distance between keywords of 99.
C. It only matches on message body.
D. It evaluates each keyword pair independently.
Answer: D

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NO.15 A divisional executive requests a report of all incidents generated by a particular region, summarized
by department. What must be populated to generate this report?
A. remediation attributes
B. sender correlations
C. status groups
D. custom attributes
Answer: D

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NO.16 A company needs to scan all of its file shares on a weekly basis to make sure sensitive data is being
stored correctly. The total volume of data on the file servers is greater than 1 TB. Which approach will
allow the company to quickly scan all of this data on a weekly basis?
A. run an initial complete scan of all the file shares, then modify the scan target to add date filters and
exclude any files created or modified before the initial scan was run
B. run an initial complete scan of all the file shares, then modify the scan target to an incremental scan
type
C. create a separate scan target for each file share and exclude files accessed before the start of each
scan
D. run an initial complete scan of all file shares, create a summary report of all incidents created by the
scan, then run weekly scans and compare incidents from weekly scans to incidents from the complete
scan
Answer: B

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NO.17 What are two benefits of the Symantec Data Loss Prevention 11 security architecture? (Select two.)
A. Communication is initiated by the detection servers inside the firewall.
B. SSL communication is used for user access to the Enforce Platform.
C. Endpoint Agent to Endpoint Server communication uses the Triple Data Encryption Standard (Triple
DES).
D. Confidential information captured by system components is stored using Advanced Encryption
Standards (AES) symmetric keys.
E. All indexed data uploaded into the Enforce Platform is protected with a two-way hash.
Answer: B,D

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NO.18 How can an administrator validate that once a policy is updated and saved it has been enabled on a
specific detection server?
A. check the status of the policy on the policy list page
B. check to see whether the policy was loaded under System > Servers > Alerts
C. check the policy and validate the date and time it was last updated
D. check to see whether the policy was loaded under System > Servers > Events
Answer: D

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NO.19 What must a policy manager do when working with Exact Data Matching (EDM) indexes?
A. re-index large data sources on a daily or weekly basis
B. index the original data source on the detection server
C. deploy the index only to specific detection servers
D. create a new data profile if data source schema changes
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which product provides support for the Citrix XenApp virtualization platform?
A. Endpoint Prevent
B. Network Discover
C. Network Protect
D. Network Prevent
Answer: A

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Exam Code: ST0-135
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Network Access Control 12.1 Technical Assessment )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 220 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 When would the Enforcer need to be reset to factory defaults?
A. to change the type of Enforcer
B. to upgrade the Enforcer
C. to purge any errors on the Enforcer
D. to purge all logs from the Enforcer
Answer: A

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NO.2 On a LAN Enforcer, which command shows the switch action table decisions in real time?
A. show spm
B. show auth live
C. show kernel live
D. show action live
Answer: C

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NO.3 What are the correct connection settings for a serial connection?
A. Data Bits: 8; Parity: none; Stop Bits: 1
B. Data Bits: 8; Parity: odd; Stop Bits: 1
C. Data Bits: 8; Parity: even; Stop Bits: 1
D. Data Bits: 8; Parity: odd; Stop Bits: 2
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which packets are periodically sent from an Enforcer to find other Enforcers on the network?
A. Failover
B. Discover
C. ARP
D. OSPF
Answer: A

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NO.5 An organization with a Gateway Enforcer behind a VPN concentrator that is performing NAT,
determines that clients are being blocked. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The client is missing from the MAC Address Bypass list.
B. The IP address of the internal interface of the VPN connector needs to be added to the Trusted
External IP Address list.
C. The Enforcer is placed in the wrong physical location on the network.
D. Static routes need to be added to the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager to pass the client traffic.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which two databases are supported when Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager is being configured?
(Select two.)
A. Oracle Database 11g
B. Microsoft SQL Server 2005, SP2
C. Microsoft SQL Express, SP1
D. Microsoft SQL Server 2008
E. MySQL Database 5.5
Answer: B,D

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NO.7 An organization's security policy requires Host Integrity checks to run only when the client is
connecting through a VPN concentrator whose internal interface is attached to a Gateway Enforcer.
Which setting should be configured to only check Host Integrity on these external clients, but not check
clients on the local network?
A. Apply the Host Integrity agent to the external computers only.
B. Add the IP addresses of the internal clients that need not be checked to the "Trusted Internal IP
Address Range".
C. Select "Only do Host-Integrity checking through the Gateway or DHCP Enforcer".
D. Block port UDP 39999 on the client firewalls of the internal clients, so that they cannot be challenged
by the Enforcer.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Refer to the exhibit.
A Symantec Network Access Control administrator is trying to implement two Gateway Enforcers in
failover mode. The administrator has implemented the two Enforcers in the network as shown in the
exhibit. After starting both Gateway Enforcers, the administrator finds that both Enforcers are in active
mode. What is the likely cause of the problem?
A. The failover configuration is missing.
B. The router is blocking multicast traffic.
C. The administrator failed to configure the Enforcers in Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager.
D. The Gateway Enforcers are configured in the same Gateway Enforcer group.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which default port must a firewall administrator open to enable communication between an Enforcer
and the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager?
A. 1433
B. 1812
C. 8443
D. 8080
Answer: B

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NO.10 In an Enforcer command line interface, which filter is used to capture communication traffic between an
Enforcer and a Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager?
A. auth
B. client
C. query
D. spm
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which statement is true about Symantec Network Access Control compliance?
A. It ensures that endpoints, such as clients and servers, meet specific administrator-defined
requirements.
B. It ensures the management of a secure client endpoint through the creation and implementation of
group policies.
C. It provides services needed by a client to bring itself up to spec in order to gain access to network
resources.
D. It provides clients with the ability to configure and deliver content and product updates to other clients
in the same topological location.
Answer: B

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NO.12 A guest is unable to download the On-Demand client. The guest is running Windows 7 64-bit and
connecting with the Mozilla Firefox browser. The computer has 512 MB RAM and 50 MB free disk space.
What is the likely cause of the problem?
A. The guest's system has insufficient disk space.
B. The guest's browser is unsupported.
C. The guest's operating system is unsupported.
D. The guest's system has insufficient RAM.
Answer: A

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NO.13 A Helpdesk technician is examining the logs for a particular client when he notices something odd. A
Host Integrity event is listed for a client as failing a requirement, but that client machine is still able to
access the network even after having the check rerun several times. Why would the client's Host Integrity
status still pass?
A. The requirement logic is malfunctioning and the Helpdesk technician should notify the administrator to
contact the vendor.
B. It is likely to be a problem with the recording of the status. The log search must be rerun to update the
status.
C. The administrator has configured that requirement to allow the Host Integrity policy to pass even if it
fails.
D. The administrator has configured the OS to ignore Host Integrity even when it fails.
Answer: D

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NO.14 How does Symantec Network Access Control handle location switching compared to Symantec
Endpoint Protection?
A. It uses a reverse logic structure.
B. It excludes locations.
C. It uses locations instead of groups.
D. It handles locations in the same way.
Answer: D

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NO.15 How can access be permitted to remediation services when a client fails the Host Integrity check using
a Gateway Enforcer?
A. Add the client's IP address to the Trusted External IP Address List.
B. Add the client's MAC Address to the Mac Address Bypass table.
C. Add the IP addresses of the hosts to the Trusted Internal IP Address List.
D. Add the client to the Allowed Client table on the Enforcer.
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which check can be performed using custom requirements to verify whether "a product is installed" on
a client machine?
A. check the registry keys to see if the product is installed
B. check the service snap-in to see if the product is installed
C. check the policy document to see if the product is installed
D. check the IT documentation to see if the product is installed
Answer: D

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NO.17 What will happen if a user switches to a location with a different Host Integrity policy while a Host
Integrity check is in progress?
A. The Host Integrity check will fail and the client will be denied network access.
B. The client will stop the check and the user may get a timeout if attempting to reach remediation
resources.
C. The client is permitted guest access to the quarantine network until the next scheduled Host Integrity
check.
D. The Host Integrity check always completes prior to moving between locations.
Answer: B

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NO.18 Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator has created a custom requirement to remediate an operating system patch. The custom
requirement appears to be working intermittently with clients that fail the patch installation, passing the
requirement anyway. What is the likely cause of the issue?
A. The logic is missing a Fail result.
B. The logic is missing an ELSE statement.
C. The logic has an extra Pass result.
D. The logic needs an additional IF/THEN item.
Answer: C

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NO.19 How can an administrator provide computers on a quarantine VLAN with access to remediation
materials without using static routes?
A. Assign a virtual IP address to the NIC on the remediation server and add it to the quarantine VLAN.
B. Create a static route from the quarantine VLAN to the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager in the
Enforcer command line interface.
C. Multi-home the remediation server and connect one NIC to a port assigned to the quarantine VLAN.
D. Put a wireless access point on the quarantine VLAN to provide wireless access to quarantined clients.
Answer: C

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NO.20 Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator needs a custom requirement to run a script if a file does not exist. Which modification to
the logic shown in the exhibit performs this functionality?
A. Add a nested AND/OR statement to run a script after the END IF.
B. Add a nested result to run a script after the Pass.
C. Use an OR modifier to run a script after the IF.
D. Use an ELSE statement to run a script after the THEN.
Answer: D

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NO.21 Which two are explanations of why auto-location switching may be useful for Host Integrity? (Select
two.)
A. It can define different Remediation sources, based on location.
B. It can enable different Antivirus features, based on location.
C. It can choose different Firewall rule sets, based on location.
D. It can select different Host Integrity checks, based on location
E. It can enable different LiveUpdate features, based on location.
Answer: A,D

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NO.22 An organization has deployed Symantec Network Access Control with LAN Enforcer. Historically, all
clients were Windows based endpoints. Now, Linux endpoints that authenticate with Microsoft Active
Directory will need to be authenticated through the LAN Enforcer. Which entry needs to be added to the
Switch Profile Action table to open the port for Linux endpoints once they have been authenticated
through Active Directory user credentials?
A. Host Authentication: Pass, User Authentication: Pass, Policy Check: Pass, Action: Open Port
B. Host Authentication: Fail, User Authentication: Fail, Policy Check: Ignore, Action: Close Port
C. Host Authentication: Unavailable, User Authentication:Pass, Policy Check: Unavailable, Action: Open
Port
D. Host Authentication: Pass, User Authentication: Unavailable, Policy Check: Unavailable, Action: Close
Port
Answer: C

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NO.23 The 802.1x protocol has three major components: Supplicant, Authenticator and Authentication Server.
Which elements serve each of these components when Symantec Network Access Control is being
configured to use LAN Enforcement?
A. Supplicant: Symantec Endpoint Protection Client,
Authenticator: Symantec LAN Enforcer,
Authentication Server: Microsoft Active Directory Domain Controller
B. Supplicant: Microsoft Supplicant,
Authenticator: 802.1x Enabled Switch,
Authentication Server: Symantec LAN Enforcer
C. Supplicant: Network Access Control Client,
Authenticator: Symantec Endpoint Protection Policy Manager,
Authentication Server: Symantec LAN Enforcer
D. Supplicant: Microsoft Supplicant,
Authenticator: Microsoft Active Directory Domain Controller,
Authentication Server: Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager
Answer: B

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NO.24 Which log contains IP address, connection attempt, port information, and the direction of the
connection?
A. Enforcer Client log
B. Enforcer Kernel log
C. Enforcer Traffic log
D. Enforcer Packet log
Answer: C

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NO.25 When a Gateway Enforcer is being deployed, which port needs to be kept open between the clients
and the Enforcer?
A. TCP 1812
B. TCP 39999
C. UDP 39999
D. UDP 1812
Answer: C

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NO.26 What should an administrator do to obtain additional information about Host Integrity checking for a
newly implemented Host Integrity policy?
A. Create a customized computer status report on the management server.
B. Enable the reporting of additional log events on the client systems.
C. Set verbose logging on the Host Integrity policy.
D. Enable debug logging on the enforcer.
Answer: C

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NO.27 A Host Integrity policy has a complex custom conditional check that has three IF THEN statements, two
of which have ELSE statements. How many ENDIF statements are required?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 3
D. 5
Answer: C

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NO.28 At the Enforcer (debug)# prompt, which command enables the most detailed level of debugging?
A. level engineer
B. level verbose
C. level fine
D. level error
Answer: A

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NO.29 Which protocol is used to transfer packet captures from an Enforcer?
A. FTP
B. HTTP
C. TFTP
D. SFTP
Answer: C

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NO.30 What is the default time interval for Host Integrity checks?
A. Continuous
B. 2 minutes
C. 5 minutes
D. 30 minutes
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 250-512
Exam Name: Symantec (Administration of Symantec Data Loss Prevention 11.5)
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Total Q&A: 161 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which option describes the three-tier installation type for Symantec Data Loss Prevention?
A. Install the database, the Enforce Server, and a detection server all on the same computer.
B. Install the Oracle database and the Enforce Server on the same computer, then install detection
servers on separate computers.
C. Install the Oracle Client (SQL*Plus and Database Utilities) on three detection servers.
D. Install the Oracle database, the Enforce Server, and a detection server on separate computers.
Answer: C

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NO.2 What are two possible ways to provide incident match text information? (Select two.)
A. CSV export
B. Email notification
C. Reporting API
D. Syslog notification
E. XML export
Answer: C,E

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NO.3 A user attempts to run Lookup Attributes manually on an incident. On the Incident List page under
Incident Actions, the option for Lookup Attributes is missing. Which section in the Plugins.properties file is
misconfigured?
A. Plugin Execution Chain is undefined.
B. Attribute Lookup parameters is set to "message".
C. Automatic plugin reload is set to false.
D. Automatic Lookup is set to false.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which profile contains information to enable the VPN on Demand functionality for the Data Loss
Prevention for Tablets solution.?
A. DLP Agent profile
B. SCEP profile
C. iOS profile
D. VPN client profile
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which product must run on a physical server?
A. Endpoint Prevent
B. Network Monitor
C. Enforce D. Network Prevent
Answer: B

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NO.6 What are two benefits of the Symantec Data Loss Prevention 11.5 security architecture? (Select two.)
A. Communication is initiated by the detection servers inside the firewall.
B. SSL communication is used for user access to the Enforce Platform.
C. Endpoint Agent to Endpoint Server communication uses the Triple Data Encryption Standard (Triple
DES).
D. Confidential information captured by system components is stored using Advanced Encryption
Standards (AES) symmetric keys.
E. All indexed data uploaded into the Enforce Platform is protected with a two-way hash.
Answer: B,D

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NO.7 An administrator has completed the example document training process, but is having difficulty deciding
whether or not to accept a VML profile. Where can the administrator find information regarding the quality
of each training set at a granular, per-fold level?
A. machinelearning_training_process.log file
B. machinelearning_native_filereader.log file
C. machinelearning_training.log file
D. machinelearning_native_manager.log file
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which two should be used to collect log information from Enforce servers? (Select two.)
A. enable the VontuSNMP service and set the community strings accordingly
B. use the Log Collection and Configuration tool
C. navigate manually to the log directory of the Enforce server installation
D. .access the Enforce Log Viewer page at https://<VONTU_SRV>/logs?view=true
E. use dbgmonitor from sysinternals to connect to the debug output of the service
Answer: B,C

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NO.9 Which detection server requires two physical network interface cards?
A. Network Protect
B. Network Discover
C. Endpoint Discover
D. Network Monitor
Answer: B

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NO.10 A scanner fails to return results upon completion of the scan process. Which file should be removed to
eliminate previous scan issues?
A. scanner_typeScanner.cfg
B. Clean.exe
C. ScannerControllerLogging.properties
D. logs
Answer: A

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NO.11 What is the function of the Remote Indexer?
A. to create Index Document Matching (IDM) profiles and Exact Data Matching (EDM) profiles on a
remote server
B. to create Exact Data Matching (EDM) profiles on a remote server
C. to create policy templates on a remote server
D. to create Index Document Matching (IDM) profiles on a remote server
Answer: B

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NO.12 In which two ways can the default listener port for a detection server be modified? (Select two.)
A. through the Enforce user interface under System > Overview
B. by editing the Communication.properties file on a detection server
C. through the Enforce user interface under Manage > Policies
D. by editing the MonitorController.properties file on a detection server
E. by editing the jaas.config file on a detection server
Answer: A,B

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NO.13 What is a possible solution when a Network Discover server is unable to scan a remote file server?
A. mount the IPC$ share on the file server
B. verify that the target file server is a Windows 2000 server
C. use the fully qualified name (FQDN) of the server
D. verify that the file server has .NET services running
Answer: C

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NO.14 A Network Monitor server has been installed and the networking components configured accordingly.
The server is receiving traffic, but fails to detect incidents. Running Wireshark indicates that the desired
traffic is reaching the detection server. What is the most likely cause for this behavior?
A. The mirrored port is sending corrupted packets.
B. The wrong interface is selected in the configuration.
C. The configuration is set to process GET requests.
D. The communication to the database server is interrupted.
Answer: D

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NO.15 What is one benefit of using FlexResponse for Network Discover?
A. Response rules trigger varying actions depending on which DLP Agent created the incident.
B. An email can be encrypted as it is being transmitted.
C. Displayed incident data can be redacted from the Data Loss Prevention interface automatically.
D. Customizable incident remediation actions can be manually executed.
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which two components are required for the Symantec Data Loss Prevention for Tablets solution in
addition to the Tablet Prevent and Enforce servers? (Select two.)
A. DLP Agent
B. Virtual Private Network Gateway
C. Web Proxy
D. 2010 Exchange Server
E. Mobile Device Management
Answer: B,C

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NO.17 Which is the correct traffic flow for the Symantec Data Loss Prevention for Tablets solution?
A. iPad > VPN > Tablet Server > Exchange Server > final destination
B. iPad > VPN > Web proxy > Tablet Server > final destination
C. iPad > VPN > Web proxy > Tablet Server > Enforce Server > final destination
D. iPad > VPN > Tablet Server > Web proxy > final destination
Answer: B

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NO.18 How can an administrator validate that once a policy is updated and saved it has been enabled on a
specific detection server?
A. check the status of the policy on the policy list page
B. check to see whether the policy was loaded under System > Servers > Alerts
C. check the policy and validate the date and time it was last updated
D. check to see whether the policy was loaded under System > Servers > Events
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which product can replace a confidential document residing on a share with a marker file explaining
why the document was removed?
A. Network Discover
B. Network Protect
C. Endpoint Prevent
D. Endpoint Discover
Answer: B

Symantec   250-512 questions   250-512

NO.20 An approved Endpoint device has been configured and added as an exception to a policy that blocks
the transfer of sensitive data. Data transfers to these approved Endpoint devices are still being blocked.
What should the Data Loss Prevention administrator do to resolve this?
A. disable and enable the policy involved for the changes to take effect
B. edit the exception rule to ensure Match On is set to "Attachments"
C. verify that the proper device ID or class has been entered
D. assign the Endpoint device configuration to all the Endpoint servers
Answer: C

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Exam Code: ST0-172
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec NetBackup 7.5 for Windows Technical Assessment)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 108 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 An administrator has a tape that has been previously used by Symantec NetBackup 7.5 for client
backups but no longer contains valid data. The barcode has been changed and the tape has been moved
to a different Symantec NetBackup domain. Which action will allow this tape to be used in the new
domain?
A. move the tape to the scratch volume pool
B. relabel the tape
C. deassign the media
D. inventory the robotic library
Answer: B

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NO.2 Refer to the exhibit.
A backup is about to run, which is being sent to the "servers" volume pool, with a retention level of 1. The
host properties displayed below have been enabled. allow multiple retentions per media allow backups to
span tape media allow media overwrite: ANSI, CPIO, DBR Which tape would Symantec NetBackup 7.5
use for the backup if tape T00306 is unavailable?
A. T00301
B. T00303
C. T00305
D. T00308
E. T00309
Answer: C

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NO.3 An administrator needs to protect a large volume of data with millions of files to tape. Which policy
feature should the administrator use?
A. Use accelerator
B. Deduplication
C. Use multiple streams
D. FlashBackup
Answer: D

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NO.4 A Symantec NetBackup 7.5 master server has a Microsoft Windows policy that protects over 500
servers using the directive ALL_LOCAL_DRIVES. The backup window for this policy is between
3:00 PM and 5:00 PM and is unshared with any other policy. When the backup window for this policy is
open, the overall performance of the disk storage unit gets degraded. Which setting should the
administrator modify to reduce the number of concurrent streams writing to the disk storage unit to 10
during the backup window?
A. disable multiplexing on the policy schedules
B. set the "Maximum backup copies" host property to 10
C. enable multiplexing for the storage unit and set the value to 10
D. enable the "Limit Jobs per policy" attribute
Answer: D

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NO.5 A tape library had the robot firmware upgraded and now the robot is reading the barcodes with
additional characters. What can be done so that Symantec NetBackup 7.5 uses the same characters as
before the firmware upgrade occurred?
A. update the Media ID Generation setting
B. update the Robot Type mapping
C. update the Media Type mapping
D. update the Barcode Rules setting
Answer: A

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NO.6 An administrator tries to suspend an active job from the Symantec NetBackup Activity Monitor but
discovers that the option is grayed out. What is preventing the administrator from suspending the job?
A. Encryption is enabled.
B. The parent job is still active.
C. Multiplexing is enabled.
D. Checkpoint restart is disabled.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Refer to the exhibit.
What will be the outcome of the policy shown in the exhibit?
A. The client will compress then encrypt the data before sending it to the media server.
B. The client will compress the data and then the media server will use tape drive encryption.
C. The client will send the data to the media server, which will compress and then encrypt the data.
D. The client will encrypt the data before sending it to the media server.
Answer: A

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NO.8 By default, new media is assigned to which volume pool during robot inventory without a configured
barcode rule?
A. Symantec NetBackup pool
B. Scratch pool
C. Default pool
D. None pool
Answer: A

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NO.9 A Symantec NetBackup 7.5 administrator at a hospital needs to store secure tape copies of protected
data to an offsite location. How can an administrator automatically eject tape media daily and create
detailed reports.?
A. enable the Encryption attribute on the vault policy to perform automated ejects and create reports
B. use tape drives that support hardware encryption and use a Vault policy to perform automated ejects
and create reports
C. use tape drives that support hardware encryption and use a storage lifecycle policy to perform
automated ejects and create reports
D. configure a storage lifecycle policy to enable automatic ejects and create reports, then enable the
Encryption attribute on the policy
Answer: B

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NO.10 A backup has allocated a tape labeled SQL001 for a SQL backup job from the scratch pool and has
assigned this tape to the Symantec NetBackup volume pool. An administrator now needs to move
SQL001 to a previously created volume pool called SQLTapes. How is this accomplished?
A. right-click SQL001 and select Change
B. expire SQL001, right-click SQL001, and select Change
C. right-click SQL001 and select Move
D. edit the barcode rules and inventory the library
Answer: B

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NO.11 An administrator must recover an expired image from a tape where only one remaining copy exists
and there are other unexpired images on the tape. How should the administrator proceed?
A. run the Tape Contents report
B. run an import on the tape
C. duplicate the unexpired images
D. verify the tape
Answer: B

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NO.12 A backup on tape is due to expire in one week. The administrator needs to keep the image available
for restore indefinitely. Which two methods can be used to accomplish this goal? (Select two.)
A. use the bpexpdate command to change the expiration date of the image
B. use the bpretlevel command to customize the retention level
C. use the bpimmedia command to freeze the tape
D. use the bpduplicate command to create a copy with an infinite retention
E. use the vmchange command to change the expiration date of the tape
Answer: A,D

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NO.13 The Symantec NetBackup administrator is concerned that the media server deduplication pool is using
more space than estimated. In which two places can the administrator find the amount of space used in
the media server deduplication pool? (Select two.)
A. Reports > Disk Storage Status
B. Device Monitor > Disk Pools
C. Reports > Disk Logs
D. Devices > Disk Pools
E. Reports > Disk Pool Status
Answer: D,E

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NO.14 Which two are used to change the status of a disk pool? (Select two.)
A. Nbdevquery
B. Device Monitor
C. Devices > Disk Pools
D. Nbdevstatus
E. nbdevconfig
Answer: B,E

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NO.15 During catalog recovery the DR file is unavailable but the images database is intact. Which step should
the administrator take first to resolve the issue?
A. identify catalog backup from the images database
B. run import on all media in the robot
C. import catalog image to disk to a temporary location
D. run bprecover -wizard from the command line with additional switches
Answer: A

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Exam Code: ST0-199
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Messaging Gateway 10.0 Technical Assessment )
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Total Q&A: 121 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 What is required before attempting installation of the Symantec Messaging Gateway 10.0
appliance?
A. console access to the appliance
B. DVD-ROM drive listed on hardware compatibility list
C. valid license file
D. machine account created in Active Directory
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is the maximum number of incident folders that may be created in Symantec
Messaging
Gateway 10.0?
A. 100
B. 1,000
C. 10,000
D. unlimited
Answer: B

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NO.3 Symantec Messaging Gateway 10.0 is certified for non-virtual deployment on which hardware
devices?
A. Symantec 2950 series appliances
B. Symantec 3570 series appliances
C. Symantec 7100 series appliances
D. Symantec 8300 series appliances
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which TCP port is used for communication between the Control Center and the scanner(s)?
A. 41001
B. 41002
C. 41004
D. 41080
Answer: B

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NO.5 What happens to a message after it has been identified as a suspect virus and placed into the
suspect virus quarantine?
A. It is automatically deleted after 7 days.
B. It is rescanned when the configured hold time has elapsed.
C. It is stored in the Central Quarantine Server.
D. It is forwarded to Symantec Security Response.
Answer: B

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NO.6 With Fastpass enabled, which two verdicts may be excluded for messages with a pass? (Select
two.)
A. Spam
B. Suspected Spam
C. Virus
D. Suspected Virus
E. Compliance
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 Which two are functions of a Symantec Messaging Gateway 10.0 scanner? (Select two.)
A. provides quarantine storage for messages
B. downloads virus definitions
C. hosts a web server
D. filters the message stream
E. runs expunger agents for the quarantine
Answer: B,D

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NO.8 An administrator needs to determine which policies have triggered for a particular message.
Which
troubleshooting tool will help to identify issues with policy precedence and actions?
A. Incident Match log
B. Filtering Policy report
C. Filtering Precedence Exception report
D. Message Audit log
Answer: D

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NO.9 What is an advantage of Symantec Content Encryption over TLS encryption?
A. ensures compliance with government-mandated regulations
B. TLS encryption provides better security than content encryption.
C. may be implemented without requiring SSL certificates for each scanner
D. ensures secure end-to-end delivery of sensitive messages
Answer: D

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NO.10 An organization has an extremely large LDAP database. What is done in Symantec Messaging
Gateway 10.0 that will help prevent mail from backing up in the system during the initial directory
building process?
A. reduce the length of time that logs and quarantine items are kept in the database
B. configure the control center to download the complete directory of users each night
C. the appliance fails open during the initial phase of deployment to prevent email from backing up
during the initial directory building process
D. preload the directory data cache
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 510-702
Exam Name: Sybase (Sybase IQ Administrator Professional Certification (Version 15.2))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 119 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 You are a DBA user and have two open connections to the database. In one connection you are
creating a HG index on a table which will require another 30 minutes to build. In the second connection
you attempt to issue an Alter Table to drop a column on the same table. What will happen?
A. The drop column will succeed but will not occur until the HG index build completes.
B. If you issue an explicit commit first, the drop column will succeed while the HG index is being created.
C. The drop column command will fail.
D. The drop column command will succeed immediately.
Answer: C

Sybase   510-702   510-702

NO.2 Sybase IQ snapshot versioning?Sybase IQ snapshot versioning
A. allows updates to tables while users are reading the data.
B. makes new table versions available automatically without explicit commit/rollbacks.
C. stores a complete copy of each table per version.
D. supports ANSI isolation level 0 reads.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which command can NOT be used to assign a user to a specific login policy?
A. GRANT CONNECT
B. CREATE USER
C. ALTER USER
D. sp_iqaddlogin
E. sp_iqmodifylogin
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which permissions can be inherited from group membership? (Choose 3)
A. ALTER
B. CONNECT
C. KERBEROS LOGIN
D. INSERT
E. REFERENCES
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.5 Using the INCREMENTAL option of the BACKUP DATABASE command?Using the INCREMENTAL
option of the BACKUP DATABASE command
A. copies all blocks that have changed since the last backup of any kind.
B. copies all blocks that have changed only since the last FULL backup.
C. copies all blocks that have changed only since the last INCREMENTAL backup.
D. performs a decoupled virtual backup.
Answer: A

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NO.6 What will be the checkpoint interval if the switch -gc is set at 6000 minutes and -gr set at 2 minutes?
A. 3 minutes
B. 6 minutes
C. 3000 minutes
D. 12000 minutes
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following statements are TRUE about Sybase IQ transaction control?
A. Individual rows may be locked
B. Individual blocks may be locked
C. Individual pages may be locked
D. Individual tables may be locked
Answer: D

Sybase   510-702   510-702   510-702

NO.8 How should you validate the database before a backup starts?
A. sp_iqstatus
B. sp_iqcheckdb
C. dbcc
D. sp_iqtransaction
E. sp_iqmpxvalidate
Answer: B

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NO.9 What is the recommended minimum RAM for a Sybase IQ Server?
A. 1GB - 2GB per server
B. 4GB - 8GB per server
C. 1GB - 2GB per core
D. 4GB - 8GB per core
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which sequence represents the permissions hierarchy Sybase IQ?
A. DBA ? Group ? Individual
B. DBA ? Individual ? Group
C. Group ? DBA ? Individual
D. Group ? Individual ? DBA
Answer: B

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NO.11 You have a license to run Sybase IQ with 4 cores. You are switching to a new 8 core server to run your
Sybase IQ database. In order to comply with Sybase licensing you need to ?Sybase licensing you need to
A. purchase a Sybase IQ license for an additional 4 cores.
B. set the server parameterqnumbercpus to 4.set the server parameter ?qnumbercpus to 4.
C. set the server parameterqgovern to 4. set the server parameter ?qgovern to 4.
D. set bothqnumbercpus and qgovern server parameters to 4.set both ?qnumbercpus and ?qgovern
server parameters to 4.
Answer: A

Sybase   510-702   510-702   510-702

NO.12 Which stored procedure displays the SQL command executing for each connection?
A. sp_iqtransaction
B. sp_iqconnection
C. sp_iqcontext
D. sp_iqstatus
Answer: C

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NO.13 What is the order needed to restore the backups taken in the following order: (1 st ) Full backup, (2 nd )
Incremental backup, (3 rd ) Incremental-since-full backup, (4 th ) Incremental backup?
A. 1 st , 2 nd , 3 rd , 4 th B. 1 st , 3 rd , 4 th
C. 1 st , 4 th , 3 rd
D. 4 th , 3 rd , 2 nd , 1 st
E. 4 th , 3 rd , 1 st
Answer: B

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NO.14 A database can be created via which mechanism? (Choose 3)
A. Utility Server
B. Any running server
C. srvbuild
D. iqinit
E. buildmaster
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.15 Which server parameter controls the number of queries that can execute concurrently?
A. -iqmt
B. qnumbercpus?qnumbercpus
C. qgovern?qgovern
D. m?m
Answer: C

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NO.16 What governs the rules for user logins?
A. sp_iqaddlogin
B. Verify_Password_Function
C. User Roles
D. Login Policies
Answer: D

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NO.17 The IQ transaction model allows?(Choose 2)
A. one user to modify a table at a time.
B. keeps changes invisible to users until all changes are committed.
C. updates to be seen by all users at the time of change.
D. multiple updates to a table concurrently.
E. different isolation levels.
Answer: A,B

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NO.18 Based on this report, how much memory (in MB) is this Sybase IQ server using?
A. 250 MB
B. 900 MB
C. 922 MB
D. 923 MB
E. 1292 MB
Answer: C

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NO.19 User Mary is assigned to group Sales. The Sales group has DBA and RESOURCE authority and owns
a table named ProductSales. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Mary inherits the DBA and RESOURCE authority.
B. Mary can add users to the Sales group.
C. Mary has select rights on theProductSales table.
D. Mary does not have to specify the owner of theProductSales table.
Answer: D

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NO.20 When granting special permissions to users with the GRANT command, all of the following are valid
privileges EXCEPT:
A. RESOURCE
B. DBA
C. SYS
D. GROUP
E. MEMBERSHIP IN GROUP
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 310-811
Exam Name: SUN (Sun Certified MySQL 5.0 Database Administrator Part II)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 138 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 For which of the following objects can privileges be specified?
A. Host
B. Global
C. Database
D. Table
E. Column
F. Row
Answer: BCDE

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NO.2 Which of the following best describes how the relay log works?
A. It records the times when the slave connects to the master.
B. When a slave receives a change from the master, it is recorded in the relay log first and processed
later.
C. When a slave receives a change from the master, it is processed first and then recorded in the relay
log.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Given the following MyISAM table structure:
mysql> desc city;
+-------------+----------+------+-----+---------+----------------+
| Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra |
+-------------+----------+------+-----+---------+----------------+
| ID | int(11) | | PRI | NULL | auto_increment |
| Name | char(35) | | | | |
| CountryCode | char(3) | | | | |
| District | char(20) | | | | |
| Population | int(11) | | MUL | 0 | |
+-------------+----------+------+-----+---------+----------------+
and the following SQL statement:
SELECT Population
FROM city
WHERE Population = 10000
ORDER BY Population
LIMIT 5;
which of the following statements best describes how MySQL optimizer executes the query?
A. The optimizer uses the primary key column ID to read the index values, then uses the index on
Population to filter the results. The optimizer will always choose to use a unique index first, then use a
secondary index if available.
B. The optimizer uses the index on the Population column to search and filter the WHERE clause. A
temporary table is used to perform a filesort on the results, and then only 5 records are returned to the
client.
C. The optimizer uses the index on the Population column to search, filter and sort the Population column,
then returns 5 records to the client. The optimizer does not need to read the data rows, and can return
values from the index only, because the index contains just integer values that form a leftmost prefix for
the key.
D. The optimizer uses the index on the Population column to search, filter and sort the Population column,
and returns 5 records to the client. The optimizer does not need to read the data rows, and can return
values from the index only because only those columns where specified in the SELECT statement.
E. The optimizer will never read data from disk, since MySQL caches both data and index in the key
buffer.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Privileges for using stored routines can be specified at the following levels:
A. Server-wide
B. Per database
C. Per routine
D. The ability to use stored procedures is not governed by the privilege system.
Answer: ABC

SUN   310-811   310-811   310-811   310-811

NO.5 With replication, what on the master is used to send commands to the slave?
A. The relay log.
B. The binary log.
C. The SQL Thread.
Answer: B

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NO.6 You have been granted SELECT, INSERT and DELETE privileges on the table city in the world
database. You log in, and exercise all your privileges without any problems.
While you are still connected and doing work, the administrator removes your DELETE privileges and
informs you by mail that you can no longer delete from table city.
Being skeptical, you decided to test your privileges and realize that you still have them all. What is are the
most likely causes of this?
A. The administrator forgot to revoke your UPDATE privilege
B. The administrator forgot to revoke your SELECT privilege
C. The administrator removed the DELETE privilege by performing an UPDATE directly on the
mysql.table_priv table
D. The administrator did not execute FLUSH PRIVILEGES
Answer: CD

SUN   310-811   310-811 test answers   310-811   310-811

NO.7 When working with stored routines, which of the following are true in regards to the effect on the
amount of data exchanged between client and server?
A. They may increase the amount of data exchanged.
B. They can help reduce the amount of data exchanged.
C. They have no effect on the amount of data exchanged.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following statements are true of how access control is based?
A. It is based off of an access control table in the mysql database.
B. It is based off of grant tables in the mysql database.
C. It is based off of an access control list stored in the data directory.
D. It is based off of an access control list stored inside the .frm files of each table.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following statements are required to create a key cache of 4 MB, assign the MyISAM table
world.City to it and preload the index?
A. mysql> SET GLOBAL city_cache.key_buffer_size = 4194304;mysql> CACHE INDEX world.City IN
city_cache;mysql> LOAD INDEX INTO CACHE world.City;
B. mysql> ALTER TABLE world.city KEY_CACHE = 4194304;
C. mysql> CREATE CACHE FOR world.City SIZE = 4194304;
D. It is not possible to create a key cache for a specific MyISAM table, only the global key cache can be
used.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Consider the following:
mysql> EXPLAIN SELECT Name FROM Country WHERE Code = 'CAN'\G
*************************** 1. row ***************************
id: 1
select_type: SIMPLE
table: Country
type: const
possible_keys: PRIMARY
key: PRIMARY
key_len: 3
ref: const
rows: 1
Extra:
Which of the following best describes the meaning of the value of the type column?
A. The table has exactly one row.
B. Several rows may be read from the table.
C. Only one row of all its rows need to be read.
Answer: C

SUN   310-811   310-811

NO.11 Which of the following statements about the slow query log is true?
A. The slow query log will always contain just slow queries.
B. The slow query log may not always contain just slow queries.
C. The slow query log always logs more than just slow queries.
Answer: B

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NO.12 What are reasons to prefer using GRANT and REVOKE statements over editing the privilege tables
directly?
A. Using GRANT and REVOKE allows the server to figure out the right tables and do all the appropriate
work
B. All grant tables in memory are immediately updated on GRANT and REVOKE
C. Making changes directly to the grant tables, one must remember to execute flush privileges to make
the
changes take effect
D. GRANT and REVOKE statements allow you to do more fine-grained tuning of user privileges than
does
editing the grant tables directly.
E. None of the above
Answer: BCD

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NO.13 Assuming that the account 'joe'@'%' does not already exist on the server, executing the statement
mysql> CREATE USER 'joe'@'%' IDENTIFIED BY 'sakila'
will have the following consequences:
A. The account 'joe'@'%' is created on the server. However, clients cannot connect using this account
until further privileges have been assigned to the account.
B. The account 'joe'@'%' is created on the server. Clients may connect to the server using this account,
but will not be able to access any databases, tables or stored routines
C. The account 'joe'@'%' is created on the server. Clients may connect to the server using this account
and execute stored routines, but will not be able to access any databases or tables
D. Nothing; there is no such command as CREATE USER
Answer: B

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NO.14 Consider the following query:
GRANT ALL ON world.* TO 'web'@'hostname'
What privileges would this give this user?
A. All privileges including GRANT.
B. All privileges except GRANT.
C. SELECT, INSERT, UPDATE and DELETE.
D. ALL can not be used when granting privileges.
Answer: B

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NO.15 The stored function year_to_date is created by the 'root'@'localhost' account as follows:
CREATE FUNCTION year_to_date ()
RETURNS DECIMAL(10,2)
SQL SECURITY DEFINER
BEGIN
...
END;
Within the routine body, a number of calculations are made on data in the financials table and the
calculated value is returned. The only account which can access the financials table is 'root'@'localhost'.
If a client connects with the account 'joe'@'localhost' and calls the year_to_date function, what will
happen?
A. The function will always execute as if it was 'root'@'localhost' that invoked it since SQL SECURITY
DEFINER has been specified.
B. The function will not execute, as 'joe'@'localhost' does not have access to the financials table
C. The function will not execute as SQL SECURITY DEFINER has been specified. It would execute if
instead SQL SECURITY INVOKER had been specified
D. If the account 'joe'@'localhost' has the EXECUTE privilege on year_to_date, the function will complete
successfully
Answer: D

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NO.16 How can the SHOW PROCESSLIST command be helpful when optimizing queries?
A. It shows if a query is using an index or not.
B. It shows how the server processes a query.
C. If checked periodically, it can reveal queries that cause other queries to hang.
D. It shows the percentage of processing power that each query is using on a server.
Answer: C

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NO.17 Consider the following GRANT statement:
GRANT USAGE ON *.* TO 'kofi'@'localhost' IDENTIFIED BY 'password'
What is the implications of executing that statement?
A. Kofi can access all database objects.
B. Kofi can access all his tables.
C. Kofi can display server system and status variables.
D. Kofi can grant privileges to others.
E. Kofi can access all database objects belonging to localhost.
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which of the following best describes why InnoDB tables should always have primary keys and why
they should be short?
A. Because InnoDB uses primary keys to locate tables, and shorter keys make quicker lookups.
B. Because InnoDB uses primary keys to locate table rows, and shorter keys make quicker lookups.
C. Because InnoDB stores pointers in a log to all the primary keys and shorter keys make this log smaller.
Answer: B

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NO.19 Is the following statement true or false? The username you use to connect to MySQL must be the same
as the login used to access the operating system.
A. true
B. false
Answer: B

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NO.20 How can stored routines be used to check for constraints or legality of incoming data?
A. They can make use of the VALIDATE DEFINER setting.
B. They can not be used to check for constraints or legality of data.
C. They can check and only perform an action if the incoming values match a specified value.
Answer: C

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