2014年2月24日星期一

C++ Institute certification CPP the latest examination questions and answers come out

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Exam Code: CPP
Exam Name: C++ Institute (C++ Certified Professional Programmer)
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Total Q&A: 230 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <vector>
#include <iostream>
#include <algorithm>
using namespace std;
template<class T>struct Out {
ostream & out;
Out(ostream & o): out(o){}
void operator() (const T & val ) { out<<val<<" "; } };
struct Add {
int operator()(int & a, int & b) {
return a+b;
}
};
int main() {
int t[]={1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10};
vector<int> v1(t, t+10);
vector<int> v2(10);
transform(v1.begin(), v1.end(), v2.begin(), bind1st(1,Add()));
for_each(v2.rbegin(), v2.rend(), Out<int>(cout));cout<<endl;
return 0;
}
Program outputs:
A. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B. 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11
C. 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1
D. 11 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2
E. compilation error
Answer: E

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NO.2 What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
#include <algorithm>
#include <vector>
using namespace std;
class A {
int a;
public:
A(int a) : a(a) {}
int getA() const { return a; } void setA(int a) { this?>a = a; }
bool operator==(const A & b) const { return a == b.a; }
};
bool compare(const A & a, const A & b) { return a == b; }
int main () {
int t[] = {1,2,3,3,5,1,2,4,4,5};
vector<A> v (t,t+10);
vector<A>::iterator it = v.begin();
while ( (it = adjacent_find (it, v.end(), compare)) != v.end()) {
cout<<it?v.begin()<<" ";it++;
}
cout<< endl;
return 0;
A. program outputs: 2 3
B. program outputs: 2 7
C. program outputs: 3 8
D. compilation error
E. program will run forever
Answer: B

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NO.3 What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <list>
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
template<class T> void print(T start, T end) {
while (start != end) {
std::cout << *start << " "; start++;
}
}
class A {
int a;
public:
A(int a):a(a){}
operator int () const { return a;}int getA() const { return a;}
};
int main() {
int t1[] ={ 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10};
list<A> l1(t1, t1 + 10);
list<A> l2(l1);
l2.reverse(); l1.splice(l1.end(),l2);
l1.pop_back();l1.unique();
print(l1.begin(), l1.end()); cout<<endl;
return 0;
}
A. compilation error
B. runtime exception
C. program outputs: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2
D. program outputs: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2
E. program outputs: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1
Answer: C

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Exam Name: Cloudera (Cloudera Certified Developer for Apache Hadoop (CCDH))
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Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 You need to move a file titled “weblogs” into HDFS. When you try to copy the file, you can’t.
You
know you have ample space on your DataNodes. Which action should you take to relieve this
situation and store more files in HDFS?
A. Increase the block size on all current files in HDFS.
B. Increase the block size on your remaining files.
C. Decrease the block size on your remaining files.
D. Increase the amount of memory for the NameNode.
E. Increase the number of disks (or size) for the NameNode.
F. Decrease the block size on all current files in HDFS.
Answer: C

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10. Indentify which best defines a SequenceFile?
A. A SequenceFile contains a binary encoding of an arbitrary number of homogeneous Writable
objects
B. A SequenceFile contains a binary encoding of an arbitrary number of heterogeneous Writable
objects
C. A SequenceFile contains a binary encoding of an arbitrary number of WritableComparable
objects, in sorted order.
D. A SequenceFile contains a binary encoding of an arbitrary number key-value pairs. Each key
must be the same type. Each value must be the same type.
Answer: D

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NO.2 MapReduce v2 (MRv2 /YARN) splits which major functions of the JobTracker into separate
daemons? Select two.
A. Heath states checks (heartbeats)
B. Resource management
C. Job scheduling/monitoring
D. Job coordination between the ResourceManager and NodeManager
E. Launching tasks
F. Managing file system metadata
G. MapReduce metric reporting
H. Managing tasks
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 In a large MapReduce job with m mappers and n reducers, how many distinct copy operations
will
there be in the sort/shuffle phase?
A. mXn (i.e., m multiplied by n)
B. n
C. m
D. m+n (i.e., m plus n)
E. E.mn(i.e., m to the power of n)
Answer: A

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NO.4 Can you use MapReduce to perform a relational join on two large tables sharing a key?
Assume
that the two tables are formatted as comma-separated files in HDFS.
A. Yes.
B. Yes, but only if one of the tables fits into memory
C. Yes, so long as both tables fit into memory.
D. No, MapReduce cannot perform relational operations.
E. No, but it can be done with either Pig or Hive.
Answer: A

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NO.5 For each intermediate key, each reducer task can emit:
A. As many final key-value pairs as desired. There are no restrictions on the types of those keyvalue
pairs (i.e., they can be heterogeneous).
B. As many final key-value pairs as desired, but they must have the same type as the intermediate
key-value pairs.
C. As many final key-value pairs as desired, as long as all the keys have the same type and all the
values have the same type.
D. One final key-value pair per value associated with the key; no restrictions on the type.
E. One final key-value pair per key; no restrictions on the type.
Answer: E

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NO.6 When is the earliest point at which the reduce method of a given Reducer can be called?
A. As soon as at least one mapper has finished processing its input split.
B. As soon as a mapper has emitted at least one record.
C. Not until all mappers have finished processing all records.
D. It depends on the InputFormat used for the job.
Answer: C

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NO.7 In a MapReduce job with 500 map tasks, how many map task attempts will there be?
A. It depends on the number of reduces in the job.
B. Between 500 and 1000.
C. At most 500.
D. At least 500.
E. Exactly 500.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which process describes the lifecycle of a Mapper?
A. The JobTracker calls the TaskTracker’s configure () method, then its map () method and finally
its close () method.
B. The TaskTracker spawns a new Mapper to process all records in a single input split.
C. The TaskTracker spawns a new Mapper to process each key-value pair.
D. The JobTracker spawns a new Mapper to process all records in a single file.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Your cluster’s HDFS block size in 64MB. You have directory containing 100 plain text files, each
of
which is 100MB in size. The InputFormat for your job is TextInputFormat. Determine how many
Mappers will run?
A. 64
B. 100
C. 200
D. 640
Answer: C

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Exam Code: IBQH001
Exam Name: IBQH (International Board for Quality in Healthcare)
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NO.1 To make a risk assessment of a procedure to choose your personal protective equipment, all of the
following must be kept in consideration except
A. The nature of the procedure
B. The risk of exposure to blood or body fluids
C. The risk of exposure to pathogenic micro-organisms
D. The race of the patient
Answer: D

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NO.2 Standard precautions are measures of infection control that are used to reduce or eliminate exposure
to infectious agents .They include all of the following except
A. Work practices
B. Engineering controls
C. Personal protective equipment
D. Isolation of patients infected by contagious diseases
Answer: D

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NO.3 Project success depends on a number of interrelated factors including time, cost, and scope control.
The success of any project depends primarily on.?
A. Customer compromise in defining his needs
B. Exceeding customer requirements through gold plating.
C. Customer satisfaction
D. Customer-supplier relationship
Answer: C

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NO.4 Effective communication is needed for
A. getting things done
B. Conferring with others to come to terms with them or to reach an agreement
C. The exchange of information
D. Taking decisions independently
Answer: C

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NO.5 A case of hepatic cirrhosis was admitted to the ER. The patient had an attack of hematemesis few
minutes after admission and a large blood spill covered the floor .The nurse in charge brought the blood
spill kit and removed the blood. All the following are component of the blood spill kit except
A. Diluted chlorine solution
B. Goggle and plastic apron
C. Sterile gloves
D. Absorbent disposable tissue
Answer: C

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NO.6 A project is defined as
A. An endeavor, which is planned, executed, and controlled, performed by people, and constrained by
limited resources
B. A process of considerable scope that implements a plan
C. A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product or service
D. An objective based effort of temporary nature
Answer: C

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NO.7 In a debate about the use of clean disposable gloves versus not using any gloves while giving
subcutaneous injections, which of the following can mostly help the infection control physician make a
decision?
A. Risk assessment
B. National guidelines
C. Cost benefit and availability of the gloves in the healthcare facility
D. The decision provided by the infection control committee
Answer: A

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NO.8 An infection control team conducted a refreshment training day for surgeons and nurses of the
operating theatre. All of the following were recommended for sound infection control practice in their
everyday practice except
A. Open foot wear must never be worn in the operating room
B. Personnel attending the patient should not leave the theatre until gown, mask, gloves and goggles are
all removed
C. If the gloves are torn, they should be removed immediately and other sterile gloves are worn
D. Double sterile gloves are recommended for all surgeons involved in the surgery
Answer: C

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NO.9 The Infection control team in a hospital carried out a survey to estimate the incidence of health care
workers colonized by MRSA. During presenting the data in a meeting of the team, what is the most
important information they should look for while analyzing the results of the survey?
A. Gender of the HCW colonized by MRSA
B. The ward where MRSA colonized HCW work
C. Type of patients they serve
D. Site of MRSA colonization (nose, hands or other site)
Answer: B

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NO.10 During the team building phase in paediatric department, which of the following best describes the
actions of the team?
A. The group is uncertain of their duties
B. Members prioritize and perform tasks
C. The team leader usually delegates
D. The team functions run smoothly
Answer: A

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NO.11 One of the most important duties that the project manager performs is
A. Cost management
B. Integration management
C. Quality management
D. Risk management
Answer: B

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NO.12 At an infection control meeting, the discussion was focused on the new neurosurgery department
which will be opened soon. Regarding the infection control measures, which must be taken to minimize
the risk of transmission of Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (CJD) and other prion diseases which of the
following statements is incorrect?
A. Flash sterilization is not effective in sterilizing equipment contaminated by prions
B. For semi critical items, immersion in 1 N sodium hydroxide for an hour is sufficient
C. Steam sterilization by gravity displacement autoclave 132 ¡ãC for 30 minutes is te preferred method
D. Prevacuum sterilizer at 134¡ãC for 18 minutes is effective
Answer: B

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NO.13 Your company's largest client has just completed an audit of your quality system. Three major
deficiencies were identified, and you risk losing this client if the problems are not corrected. As quality
manager the best plan of action is
A. Identify and correct the root cause of the deficiencies and implement changes to improve the quality
system
B. Reprimand the employees that caused the deficiencies
C. Wait until another client finds the same deficiencies, and then form a task team to investigate the
problems
D. Promise the client that the problems will be corrected
Answer: C

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NO.14 Project management processes can be organized into
A. Initiating, planning, executing, controlling, and closing
B. Initiating, planning, contracting, executing, and administration
C. Designing, developing, testing, implementing and controlling
D. Initiating, designing, planning, executing, controlling, and Implementation
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which organization is closest to a functional organization?
A. Strong matrix organization
B. Balanced matrix organization
C. Projectized organization
D. Weak matrix organization
Answer: D

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NO.16 To establish effective infection control in a health care facility which of the following is critical?
A. A physician and a nurse with responsibilities for infection control
B. A manual of critical infection control policies and an educational program for staff
C. Senior management commitment
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.17 In the matrix management organization, which of the following is true?
A. The functional manager is responsible for improvement of employees ¯ sk ill s
B. The project manager is responsible for the employees' annual appraisal
C. The employee is responsible for his or her own skills improvement
D. The project manager is responsible for employees' skills improvement
Answer: A

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NO.18 Company procedures require the creation of a lessons learned document. Which of the following is the
best use of this document?
A. Planning record for the current project
B. Planning for future projects
C. Informing the team about what the project manager has done
D. Informing the team about the project management plan
Answer: B

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NO.19 The most important procedure for the prevention of infection from germs and viruses is
A. Wearing gloves
B. Wearing surgical mask
C. Effective hand washing
D. Wearing protective eyewear
Answer: C

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NO.20 All of the following occur during the planning process group except
A. Develop project charter
B. Create WBS
C. Estimate costs
D. Sequence activities
Answer: A

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Exam Code: PEGACLSA-6-2V2
Exam Name: Pegasystems (Certified Lead System Architect (CLSA) 6.2V2)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 149 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 A rule is shown in the Final Conflicts report after doing an upgrade. Which of the following
describe what could be done to resolve the conflict? (Choose Two)
A. The rule could be marked Final
B. The rule could be deleted or Withdrawn so that the standard version of the rule is executed
C. Do a SaveAs on the conflicting rule to a new name and update references to this new rule
D. The rule could be copied into the production RuleSet
E. The corresponding RuleSet could be locked
F. The rule could be copied into a more specific class
Answer: B,C

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NO.2 An application administrator has been sent a number of complaints that after nightly server
restarts the PRPC application is slow in the early morning. Which of the following actions can be
used to mitigate this issue? (Choose One)
A. Enable Assembly Avoidance
B. Restart System Pulse
C. Configure and execute Static Assembler
D. Increase the size of the Rule Cache
Answer: C

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NO.3 A work type MyCo-FW-PurchaseApp-Work-Request has a PageList property .LineItems of class
MyCo-FW-PurchaseApp-Data-Item.
Another work type, MyCo-FW-PurchaseApp-Work-Order has a PageList property .ItemsForVendor
of class MyCo-FW-PurchaseApp-Data-Item.
An item has a calculation .TotalPrice = .Quantity * .UnitPrice.
The application is experiencing behavior where the TotalPrice is calculating correctly for Requests
but not for Orders. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this issue? (Choose
One)
A. The expression is likely defined as a context-sensitive expression ("only when the top level
page is of the applies to class")
B. The expression is likely defined as backward chaining
C. The expression is likely defined as a context-free expression ("regardless of any page it is
contained in")
D. The expression is likely defined as forward chaining
Answer: A

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NO.4 You have been asked to build a human resources application that facilitates the work required
to
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and "Setup Payroll". You are having trouble deciding if each of these tasks should be represented
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A. It must be possible for "Acquire Computer" and "Setup Payroll" to be assigned to different
operators at the same time
B. It must be possible for the completion of one task to be independent from the other
C. It must be possible to edit fields for "Acquire Computer" and "Setup Payroll" at the same time
D. It must be possible to configure security differently; those who can open "Acquire Computer"
must not be able to open "Setup Payroll"
E. "Acquire Computer" and "Setup Payroll" require the capability to be reopened independently
Answer: C,E

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NO.5 When is it appropriate to use a spin-off? (Choose One)
A. When you wish to run calculations in a separate thread from the current process
B. When you wish to make a long-running SOAP service call asynchronously
C. When you wish to start another flow execution while continuing down the current process path
D. When you wish to call multiple connector rules concurrently
Answer: C

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Exam Code: CTFL-001
Exam Name: ISQI (ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level)
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Total Q&A: 219 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Considerable attention will be given in this project to defining exit criteria and on reporting back on their
status. Which combination of TWO exit criteria from the list would be best to use? 1 credit
I. Total number of defects found
II. Percentage of test cases executed
III. Total test effort planned versus total actual test effort spent
IV. Defect trend (number of defects found per test run over time
A. (i) and (ii)
B. (i) and (iv)
C. (ii) and (iii)
D. (ii) and (iv)
Answer: D

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NO.2 Identify the THREE types of formal peer reviews that can be recognized. 1 credit
A. Inspection
B. Management review
C. Walkthrough
D. Audit
E. Technical review
F. Informal review
G. Assessment
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.3 You have been given responsibility for the non-functional testing of a safety-critical monitoring &
diagnostics package in the medical area. Which of the following would you least expect to see addressed
in the test plan? 1 credit
A. Availability
B. Safety
C. Portability
D. Reliability
Answer: C

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NO.4 Since the system is in the medical domain and therefore in the safety critical area, testing needs to be
rigorous and evidence is required that the system has been adequately tested. Identify THREE measures
that would typically be part of the test approach in this domain and which are not always applicable in
other domains! 1 credit
A. High level of documentation
B. Failure Mode and Effect Analysis (FMEA) sessions
C. Traceability to requirements
D. Non-functional testing
E. Master test planning
F. Test design techniques
G. Reviews
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.5 You are about to release a test progress report to a senior manager, who is not a test specialist. Which
of the following topics should NOT be included in the test progress report? 1 credit
A. Product risks which have been mitigated and those which are outstanding.
B. Recommendations for taking controlling actions
C. Status compared against the started exit criteria
D. Detailed overview of the risk-based test approach being used to ensure the exit criteria to be achieved
Answer: D

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NO.6 What is the main reason why reviews are especially beneficial in the above-mentioned scenario? 2
credits
A. They ensure a common understanding of the product.
B. They find defects early.
C. They enhance project communication.
D. They can be performed without exercising the code.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Explain how the above mentioned report may differ from a report that you produce for the project
manager, who is a test specialist Select TWO items from the following options that can be used to report
to the project manager and would not be included in a report to senior management. 1 credit
A. Show details on effort spent
B. List of all outstanding defects with their priority and severity
C. Give product risk status
D. Show trend analysis
E. State recommendations for release
Answer: A,B

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NO.8 As part of the improvement program, the organization is also looking at tool support. Which type of tool
could be used to ensure higher quality of the code to be reviewed? 1 credit
A. Review tool
B. Test execution tool
C. Static analysis tool
D. Test design tool
Answer: C

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NO.9 Consider the typical objectives of testing. Which of the following metrics can be used to measure the
effectiveness of the testing process in achieving one of those objectives? 1 credit
A. Average number of days between defect discovery and resolution
B. Percentage of requirements covered
C. Lines of code written per developer per day
D. Percentage of test effort spent on regression testing
Answer: B

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NO.10 A test log is one of the documents that need to be produced in this domain in order to provide evidence
of testing. However, the level of detail of test logs can vary. Which of the following is NOT an influencing
factor for the level of detail of the test logs being produced? 1 credit
A. Level of test execution automation
B. Test level
C. Regulatory requirements
D. Experience level of testers
Answer: D

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Exam Code: CTAL-TM_UK
Exam Name: ISQI (ISTQB Certified Tester Advanced Level - Test Manager (CTAL-TM_UK))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 65 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Considerable attention will be given in this project to defining exit criteria and on reporting
back on their status. Which combination of TWO exit criteria from the list would be best to use? 1
credit
I. Total number of defects found
II. Percentage of test cases executed
III. Total test effort planned versus total actual test effort spent
IV. Defect trend (number of defects found per test run over time
A.(i) and (ii)
B.(i) and (iv)
C.(ii) and (iii)
D.(ii) and (iv)
Answer: D

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NO.2 You are about to release a test progress report to a senior manager, who is not a test specialist.
Which of the following topics should NOT be included in the test progress report? 1 credit
A. Product risks which have been mitigated and those which are outstanding.
B. Recommendations for taking controlling actions
C. Status compared against the started exit criteria
D. Detailed overview of the risk-based test approach being used to ensure the exit criteria to be
achieved
Answer: D

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NO.3 Identify the THREE types of formal peer reviews that can be recognized. 1 credit
A. Inspection
B. Management review
C. Walkthrough
D. Audit
E. Technical review
F. Informal review
G. Assessment
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.4 Consider the typical objectives of testing. Which of the following metrics can be used to
measure the effectiveness of the testing process in achieving one of those objectives? 1 credit
A. Average number of days between defect discovery and resolution
B. Percentage of requirements covered
C. Lines of code written per developer per day
D. Percentage of test effort spent on regression testing
Answer: B

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NO.5 A test log is one of the documents that need to be produced in this domain in order to provide
evidence of testing. However, the level of detail of test logs can vary. Which of the following is NOT
an influencing factor for the level of detail of the test logs being produced? 1 credit
A. Level of test execution automation
B. Test level
C. Regulatory requirements
D. Experience level of testers
Answer: D

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NO.6 Since the system is in the medical domain and therefore in the safety critical area, testing
needs to be rigorous and evidence is required that the system has been adequately tested. Identify
THREE measures that would typically be part of the test approach in this domain and which are not
always applicable in other domains! 1 credit
A. High level of documentation
B. Failure Mode and Effect Analysis (FMEA) sessions
C. Traceability to requirements
D. Non-functional testing
E. Master test planning
F. Test design techniques
G. Reviews
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.7 Explain how the above mentioned report may differ from a report that you produce for the
project manager, who is a test specialist Select TWO items from the following options that can be
used to report to the project manager and would not be included in a report to senior management.
1 credit
A. Show details on effort spent
B. List of all outstanding defects with their priority and severity
C. Give product risk status
D. Show trend analysis
E. State recommendations for release
Answer: A,B

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NO.8 You have been given responsibility for the non-functional testing of a safety-critical monitoring
& diagnostics package in the medical area. Which of the following would you least expect to see
addressed in the test plan? 1 credit
A. Availability
B. Safety
C. Portability
D. Reliability
Answer: C

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Exam Code: CVA
Exam Name: NACVA (Certified Valuation Analyst (CVA))
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Total Q&A: 251 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 S corporations, limited liability corporations, limited liability partnerships, family limited
partnerships, professional corporations, real estate investment trust, investment companies
registered under the investment company act of 1940 and personal holding companies are the
examples of:
A. General and limited partnerships
B. Cooperatives
C. Entities’ structures giving rise to special legal or tax considerations (specified structure)
D. Companies following valuation standards
Answer: C

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NO.2 The United State is by far the world leader in markets for both publicly traded securities and
closely held businesses and business interests. Two factors have combined to accelerate the
spread of U.S technology in financial appraisals and market throughout the world. Which of
the following is/are of those factors?
A. Rapidly increasing international flow of capital
B. Growing privatization of formerly socially owned businesses in almost every country of
the world.
C. Increased inflation in major parts of the world
D. Secondary market securities trading phenomenon
Answer: A, B

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NO.3 When specifying, who is to provide the valuation services, the important distinction is
whether the client is retaining the appraisal firm itself or the individual appraiser employed
by the firm. The common practice is:
A. To retain the individual appraiser rather than the firm
B. To retain the firm rather than individual appraiser, even though the expert witnesses testify
based upon their individual expertise and opinions
C. To retain the individual since the firm is responsible for completing the assignment
regardless of impairment the individual’s capability to perform the work
D. To retain firm as such practice also tends to provide discontinuity in retention of working
papers and related records, marking them accessible if they are needed months or even yearslater
as they frequently are
Answer: B

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NO.4 The definition of specific business interest can be broken down into two broad questions:
1.-Is the valuation to be a valuation of assets or a valuation of securities?
2)-In either case, exactly what assets or what securities are subject to valuation? By securities
in above context, we mean:
A. Ownership interests; such as marketable securities and commercial papers
B. Ownership interests; such as stock, dept and partnership interests
C. Partnership interests
D. Equity or invested capital
Answer: B

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5. Valuation of
must be specified. For example, the assignment might include
language such as” ...engaged to estimate the fair market value of the fixed assets, inventory,
and goodwill, on a going-concern basis of...”
A. Assets
B. Securities
C. Cooperatives
D. Partnerships
Answer: A

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