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Exam Code: 1Z1-050
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Database 11g: New Features for Administrators)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 183 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 In which two aspects does hot patching differ from conventional patching? (Choose two.)
A.It consumes more memory compared with conventional patching.
B.It can be installed and uninstalled via OPatch unlike conventional patching.
C.It takes more time to install or uninstall compared with conventional patching.
D.It does not require down time to apply or remove unlike conventional patching.
E.It is not persistent across instance startup and shutdown unlike conventional patching.
Answer: AD

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NO.2 You are managing the APPPROD database as a DBA. You plan to duplicate this database in the same
system with the name DUPDB.
You issued the following RMAN commands to create a duplicate database:
Which three are the prerequisites for the successful execution of the above command? (Choose three.)
A.The source database should be open.
B.The target database should be in ARCHIVELOG mode if it is open.
C.RMAN should be connected to both the instances as SYSDBA.
D.The target database backups should be copied to the source database backup directories.
E.The password file must exist for the source database and have the same SYS user password as the
target.
Answer: BCE

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NO.3 Which two are the prerequisites to enable Flashback Data Archive? (Choose two.)
A.Undo retention guarantee must be enabled.
B.Database must be running in archivelog mode.
C.Automatic undo management must be enabled.
D.The tablespace on which the Flashback Data Archive is created must be managed with Automatic
Segment Space Management (ASSM).
Answer: CD

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NO.4 What are the recommendations for Oracle Database 11g installation to make it Optimal Flexible
Architecture (OFA)-compliant? (Choose all that apply.)
A.ORACLE_BASE should be set explicitly.
B.An Oracle base should have only one Oracle home created in it.
C.Flash recovery area and data file location should be on separate disks.
D.Flash recovery area and data file location should be created under Oracle base in a non-Automatic
Storage Management (ASM) setup.
Answer: ACD

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NO.5 You decided to use Direct NFS configuration in a non-RAC Oracle installation and created the
oranfstab file in /etc.
Which two statements are true regarding this oranfstab file? (Choose two.)
A.Its entries are specific to a single database.
B.It contains file systems that have been mounted by Direct NFS.
C.It is globally available to all Oracle 11g databases on the machine.
D.It contains file systems that have been mounted by the kernel NFS system.
Answer: CD

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NO.6 Which is the source used by Automatic SQL Tuning that runs as part of the AUTOTASK framework?
A.SQL statements that are part of the AWR baseline only
B.SQL statements based on the AWR top SQL identification
C.SQL statements that are part of the available SQL Tuning Set (STS) only
D.SQL statements that are available in the cursor cache and executed by a user other than SYS
Answer: B

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NO.7 Following is the list of locations in random order where oranfstab can be placed.
What is the sequence in which Direct NFS will search the locations?
A.1, 2, 3
B.3, 2, 1
C.2, 3, 1
D.1, 3, 2
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which two statements are true with respect to the maintenance window? (Choose two.)
A.A DBA can enable or disable an individual task in all maintenance windows.
B.A DBA cannot change the duration of the maintenance window after it is created.
C.In case of a long maintenance window, all Automated Maintenance Tasks are restarted every four
hours.
D.A DBA can control the percentage of the resource allocated to the Automated Maintenance Tasks in
each window.
Answer: AD

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NO.9 Which two statements are true regarding the starting of the database instance using the following
command? (Choose two.)
SQL>STARTUP UPGRADE
A.It enables all system triggers.
B.It allows only SYSDBA connections.
C.It ensures that all job queues remain active during the upgrade process.
D.It sets system initialization parameters to specific values that are required to enable database upgrade
scripts to be run.
Answer: BD

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NO.10 You opened the encryption wallet and then issued the following command:
Then you closed the wallet. Later, you issued the following command to create the EMPLOYEES table in
the SECURESPACE tablespace and you use the NO SALT option for the EMPID column.
What is the outcome?
A.It creates the table and encrypts the data in it.
B.It generates an error because the wallet is closed.
C.It creates the table but does not encrypt the data in it.
D.It generates an error because the NO SALT option cannot be used with the ENCRYPT option.
Answer: B

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NO.11 During the installation of Oracle Database 11g, you do not set ORACLE_BASE explicitly. You selected
the option to create a database as part of the installation. How would this environment variable setting
affect the installation?
A.The installation terminates with an error.
B.The installation proceeds with the default value without warnings and errors.
C.The installation proceeds with the default value but it would not be an OFA-compliant database.
D.The installation proceeds with the default value but a message would be generated in the alert log file.
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which dependent object will get invalidated even if it is not affected by the table redefinition?
A.views
B.triggers
C.packages
D.synonyms
Answer: B

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NO.13 You are managing an Oracle 11g database with ASM storage, for which the COMPATIBLE initialization
parameter is set to 11.1.0. In the ASM instance, the COMPATIBLE.RDBMS attribute for the disk group is
set to 10.2 and the COMPATIBLE.ASM attribute is set to 11.1.
Which two statements are true in this scenario for the features enabled for ASM? (Choose two.)
A.The ASM-preferred mirror read feature is enabled.
B.The ASM supports variable sizes for extents of 1, 8, and 64 allocation units.
C.The ASM disk is dropped immediately from a disk group when it becomes unavailable.
D.The RDBMS always reads the primary copy of a mirrored extent of the ASM disk group.
Answer: AB

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NO.14 Which steps are mandatory to enable Direct NFS?
A.2 and 3
B.1 and 3
C.1 and 2
D.1, 2 and 3
Answer: B

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NO.15 Identify two situations in which you can use Data Recovery Advisor for recovery. (Choose two.)
A.The database files are corrupted when the database is open.
B.The archived log files are missing for which backup is not available.
C.The user has dropped an important table that needs to be recovered.
D.You are not able to start up the database instance because the required database files are missing.
Answer: AD

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NO.16 Your organization decided to upgrade the existing Oracle 10g database to Oracle 11g database in a
multiprocessor environment. At the end of the upgrade, you observe that the DBA executes the following
script:
SQL> @utlrp.sql
What is the significance of executing this script?
A.It performs parallel recompilation of only the stored PL/SQL code.
B.It performs sequential recompilation of only the stored PL/SQL code.
C.It performs parallel recompilation of any stored PL/SQL as well as Java code.
D.It performs sequential recompilation of any stored PL/SQL as well as Java code.
Answer: C

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NO.17 Examine the following PL/SQL block:
Which statement describes the effect of the execution of the above PL/SQL block?
A.The plan baselines are verified with the SQL profiles.
B.All fixed plan baselines are converted into nonfixed plan baselines.
C.All the nonaccepted SQL profiles are accepted into the plan baseline.
D.The nonaccepted plans in the SQL Management Base are verified with the existing plan baselines.
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which two statements are true regarding hot patching? (Choose two.)
A.It requires relinking of the Oracle binary.
B.It does not require database instance shutdown.
C.It can detect conflicts between two online patches.
D.It is available for installing all patches on all platforms.
E.It works only in a single database instance environment.
Answer: BC

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NO.19 Which two statements about Oracle Direct Network File System (NFS) are true? (Choose two.)
A.It bypasses the OS file system cache.
B.A separate NFS interface is required for use across Linux, UNIX, and Windows platforms.
C.It uses the operating system kernel NFS layer for user tasks and network communication modules.
D.File systems need not be mounted by the kernel NFS system when being served through Direct NFS.
E.Oracle Disk Manager can manage NFS on its own, without using the operating system kernel NFS
driver.
Answer: AE

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NO.20 You installed Oracle Database 11g and are performing a manual upgrade of the Oracle9i database.
As a part of the upgrade process, you execute the following script:
SQL>@utlu111i.sql
Which statement about the execution of this script is true?
A.It must be executed from the Oracle Database 11g environment.
B.It must be executed only after the SYSAUX tablespace has been created.
C.It must be executed from the environment of the database that is being upgraded.
D.It must be executed only after AUTOEXTEND is set to ON for all existing tablespaces.
E.It must be executed from both the Oracle Database 11g and Oracle Database 9i environments.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 1Z0-054
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Database 11g: Performance Tuning)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 192 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 You work as a DBA for a company and you have the responsibility of managing one of its online
transaction processing (OLTP) systems. The database encountered performance-related problems and
you generated an Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) report to investigate it further.
View the Exhibits and examine the AWR report.
What could be the problem in this database?
A.Java pool is not configured.
B.The CPU in the system is slow.
C.The shared pool size is inadequate.
D.The database buffer cache is inadequate.
E.The OPEN_CURSORS parameter is set to a small value.
ANSWER: C

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NO.2 Examine the initialization parameter values for the instance given below:
NAME TYPE VALUE
------------------------------------ ----------- ------------------
optimizer_capture_sql_plan_baselines boolean FALSE
optimizer_dynamic_sampling integer 2
optimizer_features_enable string 11.1.0.6
optimizer_index_caching integer 0
optimizer_index_cost_adj integer 100
optimizer_mode string ALL_ROWS
db_file_multiblock_read_count integer 64
The index created on the column used in the WHERE clause of the query. You notice that the query is not
using the index. Instead of an index scan, a full table scan is used.
View the Exhibit and examine the autotrace output for a query.
What could be the reason for it? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The OPTIMIZER_INDEX_COST_ADJ initialization parameter has a low value.
B. The DB_FILE_MULTIBLOCK_READ_COUNT initialization parameter has a low value.
C. The statistics for the table and all the indexes associated with the table are not current.
D. The table has less than DB_FILE_MULTIBLOCK_READ_COUNT blocks under the high-water mark.
ANSWER: CD

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NO.3 View Exhibit1 to examine the description of the CUSTOMERS table.
You observed that optimizer selectivity is not accurate when the CUST_STATE_PROVINCE and
COUNTRY_ID columns are used together in the WHERE clause of a query.
View Exhibit2 to examine the query execution plan and the commands executed to gather the statistics.
The optimizer predicts that 20 rows will be processed rather than the 3,341 rows, which is the actual
number of rows returned from the table.
What can you do to make the optimizer detect the actual number of rows?
A. Set the STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter to ALL.
B. Set the OPTIMIZER_USE_PENDING_STATISTICS parameter to FALSE.
C. Create extended statistics for the CUST_STATE_PROVINCE and COUNTRY_ID columns.
D. Increase the STALE_PERCENT value for the CUSTOMERS table by using the
DBMS_STATS.SET_TABLE_PREFS procedure.
ANSWER: C

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NO.4 Which three factors influence the optimizer's behavior while choosing an optimization approach and
goal for a SQL statement? (Choose three.)
A.parsing of a SQL statement
B.operating system (OS) statistics
C.object statistics in the data dictionary
D.the OPTIMIZER_MODE initialization parameter
E.optimizer SQL hints for changing the query optimizer goal
ANSWER: CDE

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NO.5 After running SQL Performance Analyzer (SPA), you observe a few regressed SQL statements in the
SPA output. Identify the two actions that you would suggest for these regressed SQL statements.
(Choose two.)
A.Running SQL Access Advisor
B.Adding them to SQL Plan Baseline
C.Submitting them to SQL Tuning Advisor
D.Running Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM)
ANSWER: BC

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NO.6 Identify two correct statements about the Active Session History (ASH) data. (Choose two.)
A.A part of SGA memory is used to store ASH data as rolling buffer.
B.The ASH data can be analyzed between any two small time intervals.
C.All ASH data in memory are flushed to disk by MMON in every 3 seconds.
D.All ASH data in memory are flushed to disk by MMNL process whenever the buffer is full.
ANSWER: AB

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NO.7 You are working on a decision support system (DSS). The index is available on the COUNTRY_ID
column of the CUSTOMERS table.
View the Exhibit and examine the parameter settings and the query execution plan.
Why is the query using a full table scan instead of an index scan?
A. because the histogram statistics for the COUNTRY_ID column are not updated
B. because the index statistics for the index on the COUNTRY_ID column are not current
C. because the DB_FILE_MULTIBLOCK_READ_COUNT initialization parameter is set to a higher value
D. because the optimizer predicts that most of the blocks in the table are accessed. Therefore, it uses a
full table scan, even though indexes are available.
ANSWER: D

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NO.8 The columns CUST_CITY, CUST_STATE_PROVINCE, and COUNTRY_ID are frequently used
together in the WHERE clause of the queries. The CUSTOMERS table is a big table with 20 GB of data.
You notice that the selectivity for these three columns varies from the selectivity that the optimizer
calculates.
What would you recommend to influence the selectivity calculated by the optimizer?
A. creating function-based indexes by concatenating all the columns
B. updating histogram statistics for these columns by using the DBMS_STATS.GATHER_TABLE_STATS
procedure
C. using the DBMS_STATS.CREATE_EXTENDED_STATS function to create a virtual column and create
index on the virtual column
D. using the DBMS_STATS.CREATE_EXTENDED_STATS function to create a virtual column and the
DBMS_STATS.GATHER_TABLE_STATS procedure to collect statistics on the virtual column
ANSWER: D

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NO.9 View Exhibit1 to examine the description of the CUSTOMERS table.
The CUSTOMERS table has been updated heavily today. In a frequently used SQL statement, you notice
that estimated rows and the actual number of rows fetched differ greatly. The COUNTRY_ID column has
an index.
View Exhibit2 and examine the query execution plan.
What would you recommend to improve the optimizer's estimation?
A. setting the STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter to ALL
B. setting the OPTIMIZER_USE_PENDING_STATISTICS parameter to FALSE
C. creating extended statistics for the CUST_LAST_NAME, CUST_ID, and CUST_TOTAL columns
D. updating the statistics for the CUSTOMERS table by using the
DBMS_STATS.GATHER_TABLE_STATS
procedure
ANSWER: D

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NO.10 View the Exhibit and examine a portion of the output obtained from the following query:
SQL> SELECT * FROM v$sys_time_model;
Select three correct interpretations of the time model statistics. (Choose three.)
A. DB time includes the wait time of all the nonidle and idle user sessions.
B. SQL execute elapsed time includes the time spent in performing fetches of query results.
C. DB CPU includes the CPU time spent on database user-level calls and background CPU time.
D. SQL execute elapsed time includes components of the hard parse elapsed time like bind elapsed time.
E. DB time includes the connection management call elapsed time excluding the background process
time.
ANSWER: BDE

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NO.11 You are working on an online transaction processing (OLTP) system. You detected free buffer waits
events for your database instance running in a machine that has multiple CPUs. You increased the
database buffer cache size as the first step. After a few hours of work on the database, further
investigation shows that the same event is being recorded.
What would be your next step to avoid this event in future?
A. Decrease the value of the DBWR_IO_SLAVES parameter.
B. Set the USE_INDIRECT_DATA_BUFFERS parameter to TRUE.
C. Increase the value of the DB_WRITER_PROCESSES parameter.
D. Increase the value of the DB_FILE_MULTIBLOCK_READ_COUNT parameter.
ANSWER: C

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NO.12 View Exhibit1 and examine the indexes on the CUSTOMERS table.
The statistics for the CUSTOMERS table have been updated recently by using the following command:
SQL> EXEC DBMS_STATS.GATHER_TABLE_STATS('SH','CUSTOMERS',method_opt=>'FOR ALL
INDEXED COLUMNS SIZE AUTO');
View Exhibit2 to examine a query plan. Even though the index is present on the COUNTRY_ID and
CUST_GENDER columns, the query uses a full table scan. What could be the reason?
A. because the histogram statistics for the COUNTRY_ID column are not updated
B. because the DB_FILE_MULTIBLOCK_READ_COUNT initialization parameter is set to a high value
C. because the optimizer calculates the cost of accessing blocks by using a full table scan to be less as
compared to index scans, even though indexes are available
D. because indexes on CUST_GENDER and COUNTRY_ID columns are of different types, the index on
the CUST_GENDER column is bitmap index, and on COUNTRY_ID columns is btree index.
ANSWER: C

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NO.13 Examine the initialization parameter values for the instance given below:
NAME TYPE VALUE
------------------------------------ ----------- ------------------
optimizer_capture_sql_plan_baselines boolean FALSE
optimizer_dynamic_sampling integer 2
optimizer_features_enable string 11.1.0.6
optimizer_index_caching integer 0
optimizer_index_cost_adj integer 100
optimizer_mode string ALL_ROWS
db_file_multiblock_read_count integer 64
You notice that the one of the queries is using a full table scan (view Exhibit1) instead of index unique
scan (view Exhibit2). The index is present on the column that is accessed in the WHERE clause of the
query. The cost for a full table scan is more than that for an index unique scan.
Why would the optimizer choose full table scan over index unique scan? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The OPTIMIZER_INDEX_COST_ADJ initialization parameter is set to a low value.
B. The OPTIMIZER_INDEX_COST_ADJ initialization parameter is set to a high value.
C. The DB_FILE_MULTIBLOCK_READ_COUNT initialization parameter is set to a low value.
D. The statistics for the table and all the indexes associated with the table are not current.
ANSWER: BD

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NO.14 A user in a session executed the following SQL statement to set the optimizer mode:
ALTER SESSION SET OPTIMIZER_MODE = ALL_ROWS
What impact would it have on the goal of the optimizer for that session? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Statement level OPTIMIZER_MODE hints take precedence over the session-level setting.
B. The OPTIMIZER_MODE parameter set at instance level takes precedence over the session-level
value.
C. The optimizer uses a cost-based approach, regardless of the presence of statistics; it optimizes with a
goal of best response time.
D. The optimizer uses a cost-based approach for all SQL statements in the session, regardless of the
presence of statistics; it optimizes with a goal of best throughput.
ANSWER: AD

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NO.15 You plan to use adaptive thresholds as part of the performance tuning activity. You decide to increase
the window size of the default moving window baseline for all metric observations and comparisons in
your database. The following error occurs when you try to increase the window size through Enterprise
Manager:
Failed to commit: ORA-13541: system moving window baseline size (1296000) greater than retention
(1036800) ORA-06512: at "SYS.DBMS_WORKLOAD_REPOSITORY", line 601 ORA-06512: at line 2
Which action would allow you to perform the preceding task successfully?
A. increasing the flashback retention period
B. increasing the retention period for SQL Management Base
C. increasing the undo retention period for the database instance
D. increasing the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) retention period
ANSWER: D

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NO.16 You are working on a development database that was upgraded to Oracle Database 11g from Oracle
Database 9i. An ADDM finding in this database says that the shared pool is inadequately sized, as shown
in the Exhibit.
You diagnosed that this is due to different kinds of workloads and this occurs only during peak hours. You
tried to resize this by shrinking the database buffer cache but that caused inadequate buffer cache
problems. The following are the related parameter settings:
SQL> show parameter sga
NAME TYPE VALUE
------------------------------ --------------- -----------------
lock_sga boolean FALSE
pre_page_sga boolean FALSE
sga_max_size big integer 300M
sga_target big integer 0
SQL> show parameter target
NAME TYPE VALUE
------------------------------ --------------- -----------------
.....
fast_start_mttr_target integer 0
memory_max_target big integer 0
memory_target big integer 0
pga_aggregate_target big integer 100M
sga_target big integer 0
You want to balance the memory between the System Global Area (SGA) components within SGA
without affecting the size of the Program Global Area (PGA).
Which action would solve this problem?
A. Set the SGA_TARGET parameter to 300M.
B. Set the SGA_MAX_SIZE parameter to 400M.
C. Set the MEMORY_TARGET parameter to 100M.
D. Set the MEMORY_MAX_TARGET parameter to 300M.
ANSWER: A

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NO.17 View the Exhibit exhibit1 to examine the series of SQL commands and parameter settings.
View the Exhibit exhibit2 to examine the plans available in the SQL plan baseline.
The first plan (in red) is created when OPTIMIZER_MODE is set to ALL_ROWS and the second plan (in
blue) is created when OPTIMIZER_MODE is set to FIRST_ROWS.
Which SQL plan baseline would be used if the SQL query in exhibit1 is executed again when the value of
OPTIMIZER_MODE is set to FIRST_ROWS?
A. the second plan, because it is a fixed plan
B. the first plan, because it is an accepted plan
C. the second plan, because it is the latest generated plan in FIRST_ROW mode
D. A new plan, because the second plan in FIRST_ROW mode is not an accepted plan
ANSWER: B

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NO.18 A batch workload that historically completed in the maintenance window between 10:00 PM and
midnight is currently showing poor performance and completing at 2 AM.
To help in the diagnosis of the performance degradation, the senior DBA in your organization asks you to
execute the awrddrpt.sql script to produce a Compare Periods report.
Which two statements are true about the report produced by this script? (Choose two.)
A. It is refreshed automatically based on the moving window baseline.
B. It compares details between any two selected time periods of the same duration.
C. It normalizes the statistics by the amount of time spent on the database for each time period.
D. It compares details between two consecutive time periods of the same or different durations and is
refreshed every 60 minutes.
ANSWER: BC

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NO.19 You observed that some of the queries are performing poorly on the SALES_RECORDS table in your
database.
On further investigation, you find that at the end of each day the contents of the SALES_RECORDS table
are transferred to the SALES table and deleted from the SALES_RECORDS table. The deleted
operations cause the table to be sparsely populated.
You decided to use the ALTER TABLE...SHRINK SPACE COMPACT command to shrink the table.
Why would you choose this method? (Choose all that apply.)
A. because it can be used during peak hours
B. because it avoids unnecessary cursor invalidation
C. because it adjusts the high-water mark (HWM) immediately
D. because you have long-running queries that might span the shrink operation
E. because it does not allow any data manipulation language (DML) operations, thereby making the
shrink
operation faster
ANSWER: ABD

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NO.20 You are working on an online transaction processing (OLTP) system. By day most of the application
users perform queries accessing the most recently added or modified rows. The applications have most
of the queries based on multiple tables. But at night, some batch processing is also done.
Which two actions would you recommend to choose a goal for the optimizer based on the needs of your
application? (Choose two.)
A.setting the OPTIMIZER_MODE parameter to ALL_ROWS at the instance level
B.setting the OPTIMIZER_MODE parameter to FIRST_ROWS_n at the instance level
C.asking the developer to add a hint /*ALL_ROWS*/ in the long-running batch processing queries
D.asking the developer to add a hint /*FIRST_ROWS_n*/ in the long-running batch processing queries
ANSWER: BC

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NO.1 What parameter provides options for compression and encryption?
A. RMTHOST
B. TARGET
C. TCPIP
D. TARGET DB
Answer: A

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NO.2 CORRECT TEXT
By default, which option is evaluated first, SQLEXEC or filter statement?
A.SQLEXEC
B. FILTER
C.There is no default; it is set with the after filter I before filter.
D. It depends on their position in the parameter file; the first encountered is executed first.
Answer: B

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NO.3 You want to configure replication of CREATE TABLE statements from oracle to Teradata, so that only
new table created in your mapped source schema is Replicated. Which should be the part of solution?
A. This feature is not supported in oracle goldenGate 10.
B. DDL INCLUDE MAPPED in extra parameter file.
C. DDL INCLUDE UNMAPPED in extra parameter file.
D. DDL EXCLUDE MAPPED in extra parameter file.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which statements are true of goldenGate password encryption?
A password can be encrypted and pasted into a parameter file. An encrypted password can be generated
using the default key. An encrypted password can be generated using a user defined-key.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 1 and 3
E. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: E

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NO.5 What GoldenGate process is responsible for capturing changes in the source database?
A. Manager
B. Replicate
C. Extract
D. Server Collector
Answer: C

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NO.6 You want encrypt message sent or over TCP/IP to server usserver1, where the goldenGate manage
process is running on port 7809. Your requirements include using a custom encryption key and advanced
encryption standard (AES), and you have created an ENCKEYS file What parameters should you use?
A. This feature is not supported in oracle goldenGate 10.
B. RMTHOST usserval, MGRPORT 7809, ENCRYPT AES, ENCRYPT KEY
C. RMTHOST usserval, MGRPORT AES, ENCRYPTKEY MYKWY, MBRPORT 7809
D. RMTHOST usserval, MGRPORT 7809, ENCRYPT BLOWFISH ENCRYPTKEY MYKEY
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which argument is used to set the maximum size of the EXTTRAIL or RMTTRAL.
A. MAXSIZE
B. TRAILSIZE
C. HAXTRAILSI2E
D. TRAILMAXSIZE F
E. MEGABYTES
Answer: E

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NO.8 Which translations are captured if you ADD EXTRACT BEGIN now 1:00 p.m., but START EXTRACT at
2:00 p.m.?
A. Transactions started on or after 1:00 p.m.
B. Transactions started on or after 2:00 p.m.
C. Transactions started before 1:00 p.m and committed after 1:00 p.m.
D. Transactions started before 1:00 p.m and committed after 2:00 p.m.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which Manager Parameter sets will report current lag every hour and write a critical message for any
Extract/Replicate with a lag over 60 minutes?
A. LAGBEPOBTHOURS 1, LAGINFO 1 and LAGCRITICAL 60
B. LAGREPORTMINUTES 60, LAGINFOHOURS 1
C. LAGREPOBT 1, I.AGCRITICALHOURS 1
D. LAGREPOBTHOURS 1, LAGINFOMINUTES 30, LAGCR JTTCAI-M I
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which three describe a valid OGG Event Action?
A. Stop the process
B. Write a checkpoint before and/or after writing the record to the trail.
C. Run a shell command
D. Purge old trail files
Answer: A,B,C

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Exam Code: 1Z0-863
Exam Name: Oracle (Java Enterprise Edition 5 Web Services Developer Certified Professional Upgrade Exam)
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Total Q&A: 96 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which two statements are true about the Web services? (Choose two.)
A. SOAP messages are compressed during transport.
B. You must implement session tracking via HTTP cookies.
C. The WSDL defines services as collections of network endpoints.
D. All data shared between Java and non-Java components must be in XML format.
E. Data interchange is standardized in XML.
F. Stateful Web services must be implemented in a heterogeneous environment.
Answer: C,E

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NO.2 Which two statements are true about JAX-WS support for data bindings? (Choose two.)
A. Data binding is performed with only generated classes to reduce errors and hide complexity.
B. JAXB 2.0 is preferred.
C. Inline binding declarations with XML Schema are NOT supported for JAXB 2.0.
D. SAAJ 1.3 is supported for data binding with SOAP.
E. JAX-RPC data binding is recommended for cross-platform interoperability.
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 A developer must modify an existing Web service client program. XML used by the service must be
updated and archived for use in other systems. The developer chooses the Dispatch API.
Which two statements are true about this approach? (Choose two.)
A. Dispatch is generic and can be instantiated for use with XML or SOAP.
B. The Web service can be either SOAP or REST-based.
C. The Dispatch instance must be created in Service.Mode.PAYLOAD mode in order to use SOAP.
D. Instantiating Dispatch Service.Mode.MESSAGE mode allows you to work directly with the XML
message.
E. It is unnecessary to use JAXB with the Dispatch API.
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 What are two valid facts about WS-I? (Choose two.)
A. The I-Stack is a great development tool.
B. The WS-I promotes and supports generic protocols for the interoperable exchange of
messages.
C. The WS-I governs languages and protocols such as SOAP, WSDL, and UDDI.
D. The WS-I specifies specific rules that address either weaknesses in component specifications or
issues of how to combine the collected technology.
E. The WS-I has been a guiding force in creating StAX.
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 Which two statements are true about the role of XML schemas in Web services? (Choose two.)
A. DTDs provide stricter data typing than XML schemas.
B. XML schemas can be used to validate the organization of XML documents.
C. XML schemas contain a vocabulary, content model and data types.
D. DTDs are easier to map to Java than XML schemas, and so remain more popular.
E. The W3C recommends that XML schemas be referred to as XSD.
F. The W3C has designated that XML schemas be referred to as WXS.
Answer: B,C

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NO.6 A developer needs to write a Web service that supports user sessions that timeout after 120 seconds.
Which configuration file is correct for the developer use?
A. web.xml
B. server.xml
C. ejb-jar.xml
D. service-config.xml
Answer: A

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NO.7 A team of developers is describing a set of endpoints in their new SOA application.
Given the WSDL extract:
<service name="InventoryServices">
<port name="PurchaseOrder" binding="tns:POBinding">
<soap:address location="http://192.168.0.2:8080/inventory"/>
</port>
<port name="Invoice" binding="tns:InvoiceBinding">
<soap:address location="http://192.168.0.2:8080/inventory"/>
</port>
</service>
Which statement is true about this WSDL extract?
A. The extract is WS-I Basic Profile 1.1 compliant because both port element names are different.
B. The extract is NOT WS-I Basic Profile 1.1 compliant because both port elements point to the same
location.
C. The extract is WS-I Basic Profile 1.1 compliant because both port elements point to different binding
elements.
D. The extract is NOT WS-I Basic Profile 1.1 compliant because it contains two port elements in the same
service.
E. The extract is WS-I Basic Profile 1.1 conformant because both port element names are
different.
F. The extract is WS-I Basic Profile 1.1 conformant because the port, binding, and service element
combinations are unique.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which two statements are true about the interaction between a JAXR 1.0 client and a UDDI registry.?
(Choose two.)
A. A JAXR client can delete an organization that it published.
B. A JAXR client CANNOT delete any of the entries in a UDDI registry.
C. A JAXR client must use HTTPS for updating the information in a UDDI registry.
D. A JAXR client can query and update the information in a UDDI registry using HTTP.
E. A JAXR client can delete an organization that it published only if the protect property is set to False.
Answer: A,C

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NO.9 Which two statements are true about the interoperability of Web services developed using the Java EE

NO.10 A company is building a Java EE 5 purchase order processing system. This system will integrate with
an external invoicing system as part of the purchase order approval process. A developer created a new
client application to access the invoicing system using request-response, but a new service call is
receiving errors every time it invokes the necessary Web service.
Which statement is true about the Body element of the SOAP reply message?
A. It must NOT contain any fault elements.
B. It will contain a fault element for each error.
C. It will contain exactly one fault element.
D. It must contain zero or one fault element.
E. It must contain an array of fault elements.
Answer: D

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NO.11 A company is building a customer relationship management system that is to be deployed on a
customer's network, and they want software functions to be reused and combined in different modules in
the system. The Director of Technology has determined that the new system should utilize both Web
services and a Service Oriented Architecture (SOA). Which two statements about Web services in an
SOA are correct? (Choose two.)
A. A Web service must be discovered from a UDDI registry in an SOA.
B. SOA and Web services both use the HTTP protocol at the transport layer.
C. A Web service must publish itself to a UDDI registry to become part of an SOA.
D. SOA is a way to design a system and Web services are a possible implementation.
E. SOA is used for stateless invocations, and Web services for stateful invocations.
F. SOA emphasizes the concept of service encapsulation and Web services fulfill a service contract.
Answer: D,F

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NO.12 platform? (Choose two.)
A. Interoperability is improved by restricting access only to Java clients.
B. EJB-based endpoints are more difficult for .NET clients to access.
C. Only servlet-based endpoints are used when exposing services to non-Java clients.
D. Exposure is limited to simple arrays of concrete types as the signature of Web service methods.
E. The service must be published in both the .NET and Java UDDIs.
F. Testing for WS-I Profile conformance improves interoperability.
Answer: D,F

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5.A company needs to process DOM documents received from its customers through an EJB3 endpoint.
Which two APIs will a developer need to invoke to process these DOM documents? (Choose two.)
A. UDDI
B. JAXR
C. JAXP
D. JAX-WS
E. JAXB
F. StAX
Answer: C,F

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NO.13 Which two statements are true about JAXR support for XML registries? (Choose two.)
A. The CapabilityProfile tells a client the capability level of a registry.
B. UDDI registries must support ebXML to be compatible with JAXR.
C. The UnsupportedCapabilityException is processed for errors from non-Java providers.
D. The JAXR API declares methods as level 0 or level 1.
E. JAXR registry clients present an XML schema that defines the infomodel for the provider.
Answer: A,D

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NO.14 Which JAXR interface allows querying a business registry using SQL commands?
A. javax.xml.registry.Connection at level 0
B. javax.xml.registry.FederatedConnection at Level 1
C. javax.xml.registry.BusinessQueryManager at level 0
D. javax.xml.registry.DeclarativeQueryManager at level 1
E. javax.xml.registry.BusinessQueryManager at level 1
F. javax.xml.registry.DeclarativeQueryManager at level 0
Answer: D

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NO.15 A company's new investment management Java application and a legacy stock trader application need
to communicate, but they use different JMS implementations. A developer decides to implement a JMS
bridge to solve the problem. Which two advantages does this pattern provide? (Choose two.)
A. It converts the interface of a class into another interface that clients expect.
B. It decouples an abstraction from its implementation so that the two can vary independently.
C. It dynamically attaches additional responsibilities to an object.
D. It optimizes network traffic.
E. It is vendor independent.
Answer: B,E

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Exam Name: Oracle (Siebel Customer Relationship Management (CRM) 8 Business Analyst )
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NO.1 What are the two characteristics of Multitenancy?
A. Agents cannot manually assume appropriate role based on inbound work items.
B. It allows a Call Center agent to support multiple clients at once.
C. It allows users to navigate through multi-interactions.
D. It requires users to change position to access appropriate data.
E. It allows up-to-date overview of customer service effectiveness.
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 You are completing a solution to a business requirement, which includes a Siebel workflow process.
This workflow updates accounts records with updated corporate information and must run weekly for all
accounts. What would be the best method for invoking the workflow?
A. By a run-time event
B. Using a custom control
C. By a workflow policy
D. Using the workflow simulator
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which is the correct term for a list of task steps grouped under a common display name?
A. Task Group
B. Task Set
C. Task Chapter
D. Task Unit
E. Task Book
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which three client types require a locally Installed .srf file?
A. Web client
B. Handheld client
C. Wireless Web client
D. Mobile Web client
E. Developer Web client
Answer: D

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NO.5 You have the choice of doing Single Instance Deployment Architecture or a Multiple Instance
Deployment Architecture. You have chosen the Single Instance Deployment. Select two benefits of a
Single Instance Deployment.
A. It provides a consistent view of all global data.
B. A single database can be taken offline without impacting other regions.
C. A single database can support multiple languages.
D. Multiple databases support resilience.
E. It minimizes demands on communication bandwidths.
Answer: A,C

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NO.6 What information does Siebel Audit Trail NOT display for an audited record?
A. The ID of users who perform operations on the record
B. The operations that are performed on the record
C. Before and after values of the record's modified fields
D. The last name of the users who perform operations on the record
E. The time and date that the record was operated on
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which two statements are correct.?
A. Business components contain data for one fundamental business entity in the enterprise
B. A business component is a collection of related business object that represent a major area of
business.
C. The business consists of UI object definitions that specify the content of user interface.
D. A view refers to one business component whose data can be viewed and edited through a form
E. A view display, one or more applets which reference business component from the business
Answer: A,E

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NO.8 Which client accesses local .cfg and .srf files and directly accesses a local database and Siebel file
System?
A. Web Client
B. Wireless Web Client
C. Dedicated Web Client
D. Handheld Client
Answer: D

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NO.9 For which three types of Siebel objects can a user perform assessments?
A. Partners
B. Service Requests
C. Accounts
D. Contacts
E. Opportunities
F. Activities
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.10 What is used to capture relationships between Siebel database tables?
A. Index
B. User key
C. Primary key
D. Foreign key
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 1z0-506
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Fusion Financials 11g Accounts Receivable Essentials)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 123 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 You have created an Invoice with an incorrect unit price. You need to perform the Rebill task
from
the Manage Transactions user interface to enter the correct transaction. Which two actions does
the Manage Transactions user interface allow you to perform for the Rebill task?
A. Duplicate the original transaction.
B. Create a credit memo.
C. Incomplete the transaction.
D. Reverse the Transaction.
E. Correct the unit price.
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 The drilldown option available in the task pane for receipts does NOT include ____________.
A. Create Remittance via Spreadsheet
B. Correct Funds Transfer Errors
C. Lockbox Transmission History
D. Create Receipt via Spreadsheet
Answer: C

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6. You can click the manager Invoice Lines from the Billing Work Area to find Autoinvoice
Exceptions. What parameters are used to summarize the exceptions for review?
A. Business Unit, Transaction Type, Invoice Date, Currency
B. Business Unit, Customer Name, Transaction Source, Total Amount
C. Business Unit, Transaction Source, Creation Date, Currency
D. Business Unit, Transaction Source, Transaction Type, Creation Date
Answer: D

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7. Which functionality is NOT provided by the Receivables to Ledger Reconciliation Report?
A. Limiting the display using the ad hoc parameter
B. Drilldown to see reconciling details
C. Drilldown to see what needs to transfer and post to the general ledger
D. Graphical and visualization components for viewing the reconciliation details
E. The reasons for the reconciling differences
Answer: C

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8. A customer calls into the Accounts Receivables Department asking for the balance of all
invoices
due in the next 30 days and has a question about a specific invoice line. As a Billing Specialist
what action will you perform?
A. Review the invoice in the Review Customer Account Details user interface.
B. Apply, reverse, or process the receipt.
C. Create an open debit memo.
D. Review receipt-, in pending status
Answer: A

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9. The billing Specialist creates an adjustment for an INCORRECT invoice and sends it for approval
through the review and Manage Transaction link in the Billing Work Area. Since the adjustment
amount is above approval limit, it is routed to the Billing Manager. What is the status of the
Adjustment when the approver sees the adjustment in his Work Queue?
A. Pending Research
B. Pending Approval
C. Approval Required
D. Waiting Approval
Answer: D

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10. You are the Billing Manager and you are in charge of reviewing transactions and approving
them.
Which two tabs are available for your role in the Adjustments Overview Region on the Billing Work
Area page?
A. Pending My Approval
B. Pending Approval
C. Pending Approval from Others
D. Approved
E. Pending Research
Answer: B,C

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NO.3 Select three valid statements related to the Shared Service Model.
A. Shared Service Personnel can view Invoices across various business units.
B. Shared Service Personnel can do cross-business unit cash application.
C. Shared Service Personnel can process invoices for various business units.
D. Shared Service Personnel can see customer account details across business units.
E. Shared Service Personnel can report data across all business units but can enter transactions
ONLY against one business unit.
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.4 Select three values that default from Customer Profile Classes.
A. Currency
B. Legal Entity
C. Payment Terms
D. Statement Cycle
E. Business Purpose
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.5 The collections Manager runs the Determine Delinquency Using Scoring program to identify
delinquent transitions. She wants to know the status of a particular transaction. On which tab she
will find the status.
A. Customer Aging tab
B. Transaction Details tab
C. Transactions tab
D. Transaction aging tab
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 1Z0-580
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Solaris 11 Installation and Configuration Essentials)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 75 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 List three reasons why Oracle Solaris 11 and SPARC would be the best platforms for deploying
an
Oracle database.
A. tight engineeringintegration between database and operating system development teams
B. continuous joint testing between database and operating system development teams
C. world record performance
D. Oracle Solaris11is only available on the SPARC platform
E. SPARCis the lowest cost hardware solution on the market today
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.2 What are the three properties of a business critical cloud infrastructure?
A. service isolation
B. flexible, virtual application instances
C. dedicated, single purpose file servers
D. easy,intuitive provisioning, chargeback, and capacity planning
E. rigid, inflexible network design
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.3 Which IPS task requires special privileges?
A. Determine if a package is installed or can be updated.
B. Identify the group to which a package belongs.
C. Determine if a package is in a particular category.
D. Determine if a package delivers a specified file.
E. Create a copy of an existing IPS package repository.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Your system has two disk devices, c2t0d0 and c2t1d0, and two flash devices, c2t5d0 and
c2t8d0.
Which command would you to create a storage pool named “tank,” which mirrors the disks and
adds the two flash devices as “cache”?
A. zpool create tank mirror c2t0d0 c2t1d0 mirror c2t5d0 c2t8d0
B. zpoolcreate tank mirror c2t0d0 c2t1d0 log mirrorc2t5d0 c2t8d0
C. zpool c2t0d0 c2t1d0 cachec2t5d0 c2t8d0mirror
D. zpool create tank mirror c2t0d0 c2t1d0 cachec2t5d0 c2t8d0
E. zpool create tankraidz2c2t0d0 c2t1d0 c2t5d0 c2t8d0
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which command can be used to determine which apache web server packages are installed?
A. pkg list apache
B. pkg list *apache*
C. pkg list installed apache
D. pkg listallapache
E. pkg list all web installed
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 1Z1-554
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Application Development Framework 11g Essentials)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 87 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 An application module is named MyAppModule. No Java component is defined for
the module but the application does define a base class that extends
racle.jbo.serverAppiicationModuleimp1. Which two statements are true in this
scenario?
A. Code In the base class will only be implemented if MyAppModuleApp1. java
extends the base class.
B. Any code in the base class will be implemented by MyAppModule.
C. No code in the base class will be implemented because an application-specific Java
component named MyAppModuleImp1. java does not exist.
D. Any code in the base class will be implemented by MyAppModuleDefimp1.java.
E. The MyAppModule. xml definition will include a reference to the base class.
Answer: B

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NO.2 You have found a declarative component that you would like to use on one of the
pages that you are designing. Choose the correct sequence of steps to add the
component to the page.
A. Select the ADF library from the Component Palette. Add the ADF library to the
current project. Select the declarative component and drag it to the page. Deploy the
component's project as an ADF library JAR file.
B. Deploy the component's project as an ADF library JAR file. Add the ADF library
to the current project. Select the ADF library from the Component Palette. Select the
declarative component and drag it to the page. C. Add the ADF library to the current
project. Select the ADF library from the Component Palette. Select the declarative
component and drag it to the page.
Deploy the component's project as an ADF library JAR file.
D. Deploy the component's project as an ADF library JAR file. Select the ADF
library from the Component Palette. Select the declarative component and drag it to
the page. Add the ADF library to the current project.
E. Deploy the component's project as an ADF library JAR file. Select the ADF library
from the Component Palette. Add the ADF library to the current project. Select the
declarative component and drag it to the page.
Answer: A

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NO.3 You select a binding In the page definition file and set the ChangeEventPolicy
property to ppr. What effect does this action have on the way the page is rendered?
A. It allows a component to partially refresh another component whose partialSubmit
property is set to true.
B. When a user selects a new value In a field, the portion of the page where that
component resides is redrawn.
C. It enables you to add a component as a partial target for an event, so that when that
event is triggered, the partial target component is refreshed.
D. Components whose values change as a result of back-end logic are automatically
repainted.
Answer: A

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NO.4 You are debugging an application module method that seems to be causing an error
when the argument value is anything but "2". How could you most efficiently debug
this issue?
A. Set a breakpoint on the first line of the method implementation and set the
breakpoint property to break only for threads named oracie.jbo.Exception.
B. Set a breakpoint on the first line of the method implementation and set the
breakpoint pass count property to 2.
C. Set a breakpoint on the first line of the method implementation and set the
breakpoint condition to arg ! = 2.
D. Set a breakpoint on the method declaration (where the argument is defined) and
step through the breakpoint at execution to determine the argument value.
E. Set a breakpoint on the method declaration (where the argument is defined) and set
the condition to arg == 2.
Answer: A

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NO.5 For a Customers view object, you have defined a view criteria to show only U.S.
customers. On an ADF Faces page, you already have an ADF Faces table displaying
data from the Customers view object. How would you display a query panel on the
page that will allow you to select the view criteria and filter the existing Customers
table on the page?
A. Drag the view criteria as a query panel.
B. Drag the view criteria to the existing table and select query panel with table.
C. Drag the view criteria as a query panel, and then set the ID property of the query
panel to reference the table.
D. Drag the view criteria as a query panel, and then set the Resultcomponent ID
property of the query component to reference the table.
E. Drag the view criteria as a query panel, and then set the Model property of the
query component to reference the table binding.
F. Drag the view criteria as a query panel, and then set the value property of the query
component to reference the table binding.
Answer: D

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